IDIOMS & PHRASES - 1

IDIOMS & PHRASES - 1

18134   22-Apr-2018, Sun

Directions (1-50): In the following questions four alternatives are given for idioms/phrases in now. Choose the one that best expresses the meaning of the given idiom/phrase.

1. A cold blooded murder

(a) An intentional /premeditated murder

(b) To go on a vacation

(c) To murder all members of a family.

(d) To murder with no weapon

 

2. Put the best foot forward

(a) Get into

(b) Start impressively

(c) To give a sign of distress trouble

(d) Oppressively

 

3. Pay lip service to

(a) To make every possible effort

(b) Fight fiercely

(c) Pretend to express loyalty or support

(d) Very close

 

4. Stick one’s neck out

(a) To take a risk

(b) Completely

(c) To be cringe

(d) To be violent

 

5. Bear the palm

(a) To bear pain

(b) Be victorious

(c) To lose the game

(d) To control anger

 

6. Tread upon other’s toe

(a) To annoy somebody

(b) To kill somebody

(c) Hurt one’s feelings

(d) To praise somebody

 

7. Cock of the walk

(a) One who is the most stupid in a group

(b) One who dominates a group or situation

(c) One who enjoys the walk.

(d) An additional achievement

 

8. From the horse’s mouth.

(a) From a reliable source

(b) From an illegal source

(c) From a costly source

(d) From an unreliable source

 

9. A black ox

(a) To be lucky

(b) To have an ox

(c) Misfortune

(d) To misbehave

 

10. Fool’s errand

(a) Useless undertaking

(b) A fool’s house

(c) Literary person

(d) Intense Dislike

 

11. Touch and go

(a) To waste

(b) Dangerous and Uncertain

(c) Conduct Secretly

(d) Pleasant and Certain

 

12. Be hand and foot

(a) In all possible ways; by all means

(b) To be lazy to move your hands and foots

(c) To fall between two great difficulties

(d) In disorder

 

13. To set at naught

(a) To like

(b) To ruin

(c) To admire

(d) To be agree

 

14. In the black

(a) In a financially profitable condition

(b) In extreme difficulty

(c) In the absence of money

(d) To be unsuccessful

 

15. Gray matter

(a) Kindness

(b) Intelligence

(c) Cruelty

(d) Weakness

 

16. All Thumps

(a) To give your best

(b) Awkward and clumsy especially with one’s hands

(c) To examine thoroughly

(d) To stop some activity, to stop working and go home.

 

17. Be in the swim

(a) To keep oneself informed and up-to-date.

(b) To refuse to do what someone else wants.

(c) To pursue a line of thought or course of action that is misguided.

(d) Someone who is completely crazy.

 

18. Feather brained

(a) To show that you do not support something.

(b) Silly or often forgetting things

(c) To be over excited

(d) To take a balanced diet.

 

19. Hear it on grapevine

(a) To hear stories regularly

(b) To listen news carefully.

(c) To hear rumors about something or someone.

(d) To continue to listen songs.

 

20. Between the cup and the lips.

(a) On the point of achievement

(b) By any means

(c) Straight talks

(d) To take on a task that is way too big.

 

21. Bend over backwards

(a) To choose between two alternative choices.

(b) In anxiety

(c) Do whatever it takes to help, willing to do anything.

(d) To bend one’s body the way one wants.

 

22. Can’t cut the mustard.

(a) Someone who is not adequate enough to compete or participate.

(b) Angry about something that occurred in the past.

(c) Someone who is not able to walk properly.

(d) Someone who doesn’t believe in God.

 

23. Gall and wormwood

(a) Source of irritation

(b) To be ready

(c) To gamble everything you have

(d) Very intimate friends.

 

24. Mumbo Jumbo

(a) To keep quiet

(b) Nonsense or meaningless speech.

(c) To participate in a competition.

(d) Here and there

25. Funny farm

(a) A mental institutional facility

(b) To laugh at someone

(c) To make funny expressions

(d) To get funny remarks

 

26. Get your walking papers.

(a) Compromise

(b) Get fired from the job

(c) To be received gracefully

(d) To sign on papers

 

27. Know the ropes

(a) Unable to understand

(b) Main support

(c) To understand the details

(d) To climb on a rope.

 

28. Free and easy

(a) Natural and simple

(b) From this time into the future.

(c) To get free commodity

(d) To recover from illness.

 

29. Level playing field

(a) To play in the field.

(b) A fair competition where no side has an advantage

(c) Energetic

(d) To promote at a higher position.

 

30. For the time being

(a) Temporarily

(b) Forever

(c) To leave from a place before time

(d) To be punctual

 

31. From stem to stern

(a) all the way from the front of a ship to the back.

(b) from beginning to the end.

(c) top of a plant to its roots.

(d) lose pleasantness to become strict.

 

32. Cut short

(a) delete

(b) praise

(c) interrupt

(d) slice into small pieces

 

33. Ruffle somebody’s feather

(a) gamble

(b) escape responsibility

(c) annoy somebody

(d) show contempt for

 

34. Run out of steam

(a) to lose impetus or enthusiasm

(b) to work quickly like a machine

(c) to give up easily

(d) no more money to spend

 

35. A cuckoo in the nest

(a) one who likes to stay at home

(b) a view from a high place

(c) an unwelcome intruder

(d) one who is chosen as the leader of the group.

 

36. Capital Punishment

(a) death sentence

(b) life imprisonment

(c) to be jailed

(d) imprisoned for a long period

 

37. Wet behind the ears

(a) skillful

(b) young and rich with experience

(c) young and without much experience

(d) hearing impaired

 

38. Talked over

(a) assessed

(b) fought about

(c) discussed

(d) surveyed

 

39. Wet one’s whistle

(a) have a nap

(b) be happy

(c) have a problem

(d) have a drink

 

40. Vexed question

(a) controversial

(b) important

(c) confused

(d) None of the above

 

41. Take fancy to

(a) to give imaginative touches

(b) revised

(c) developed liking for

(d) improved

 

42. On tenterhooks

(a) happy & excited

(b) in suspense & anxiety

(c) angry and irritated

(d) surprised & shocked

 

43. Dressing-down

(a) apply bandage

(b) wear an expensive gown

(c) give a scolding

(d) pretend

 

44. Cut the mustard

(a) to get under expectations

(b) to score average

(c) to perform well

(d) to underperform

 

45. Gall and wormwood

(a) a problem

(b) hateful

(c) useless

(d) hard to digest

 

46. Whale of a time

(a) To marry

(b) Enjoy a lot

(c) To regret

(d) A bad memory

 

47. An Ananias

(a) A Liar

(b) A man with lots of money

(c) An irritating person

(d) An important person

 

48. Wrap one’s brain around

(a) To not mix with others

(b) To scratch one’s head

(c) Concentrate on something to understand.

(d) To get aggressive

 

49. Bee-line

(a) The shortest distance between two places

(b) To be apart by maximum distance

(c) To fight for one’s rights

(d) To act unfairly in a contest

 

50. To be snowed under

(a) To be in a dilemma

(b) To be very busy

(c) To be under suspicion

(d) To be at a cold place

READING COMPREHENSION SET - 6

READING COMPREHENSION SET - 6

2425   22-Apr-2018, Sun

(RC-1) Directions (Q.1-10) Each of the reading comprehension questions is based on the content of a passage. After reading the passage, answer all questions pertaining to it on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.

In terrestrial environments, gravity places special demands on the cardiovascular systems of animals. Gravitational pressure can cause blood to pool in the lower regions of the body, making it difficult to circulate blood to critical organs such as the brain. Terrestrial snakes, in particular, exhibit adaptations that aid in circulating blood against the force of gravity. The problem confronting terrestrial snakes is best illustrated by what happens to sea snakes when removed from their supportive medium. Because the vertical pressure gradients within the blood vessels are counteracted by similar pressure gradients in the surrounding water, the distribution of blood throughout the body of sea snakes remains about the same regardless of their orientation in space, provided they remain in the ocean. When removed from the water and tilted at various angles with the head up, however, blood pressure at their midpoint drops significantly, and at brain level falls to zero. That many terrestrial snakes in similar spatial orientations do not experience this kind of circulatory failure suggests that certain adaptations enable them to regulate blood pressure more effectively in those orientations.

One such adaptation is the closer proximity of the terrestrial snake’s heart to its head, which helps to ensure circulation to the brain, regardless of the snake’s orientation in space. The heart of sea snakes can be located near the middle of the body, a position that minimizes the work entailed in circulating blood to both extremities. In arboreal snakes, however, which dwell in trees and often assume a vertical posture, the average distance from the heart to the head can be as little as 15 percent of overall body length. Such a location requires that blood circulated to the tail of the snake travel a greater distance back to the heart, a problem solved by another adaptation. When climbing, arboreal snakes often pause momentarily to wiggle their bodies, causing waves of muscle contraction that advance from the lower torso to the head. By compressing the veins and forcing blood forward, these contractions apparently improve the flow of venous blood returning to the heart.

 

1. The passage provides information in support of which of the following assertions?

(A) The disadvantages of an adaptation to a particular feature of an environment often outweigh the advantages of such an adaptation.

(B) An organism’s reaction to being placed in an environment to which it is not well adapted can sometimes illustrate the problems that have been solved by the adaptations of organisms indigenous to that environment.

(C) The effectiveness of an organism’s adaptation to a particular feature of its environment can only be evaluated by examining the effectiveness with which organisms of another species have adapted to a similar feature of a different environment.

(D) Organisms of the same species that inhabit strikingly different environments will often adapt in remarkably similar ways to the few features of those environments that are common.

(E) Different species of organisms living in the same environment will seldom adapt to features of that environment in the same way.

 

2. According to the passage, one reason that the distribution of blood in the sea snake changes little while the creature remains in the ocean is that?

(A) the heart of the sea snake tends to be located near the center of its body

(B) pressure gradients in the water surrounding the sea snake counter the effects of vertical pressure gradients within its blood vessels

(C) the sea snake assumes a vertical posture less frequently than do the terrestrial and the arboreal snake

(D) the sea snake often relies on waves of muscle contractions to help move blood from the torso to the head

(E) the force of pressure gradients in the water surrounding the sea snake exceeds that of vertical pressure gradients within its circulatory system

 

3. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is true of species of terrestrial snakes that often need to assume a vertical posture?

(A) They are more likely to be susceptible to circulatory failure in vertical postures than are sea snakes.

(B) Their hearts are less likely to be located at the midpoint of their bodies than is the case with sea snakes.

(C) They cannot counteract the pooling of blood in lower regions of their bodies as effectively as sea snakes can.

(D) The blood pressure at their midpoint decreases significantly when they are tilted with their heads up.

(E) They are unable to rely on muscle contractions to move venous blood from the lower torso to the head.

 

4. The author describes the behavior of the circulatory system of sea snakes when they are removed from the ocean primarily in order to

(A) illustrate what would occur in the circulatory system of terrestrial snakes without adaptations that enable them to regulate their blood pressure in vertical orientations

(B) explain why arboreal snakes in vertical orientations must rely on muscle contractions to restore blood pressure to the brain

(C) illustrate the effects of circulatory failure on the behavior of arboreal snakes

(D) illustrate the superiority of the circulatory system of the terrestrial snake to that of the sea snake

(E) explain how changes in spatial orientation can adversely affect the circulatory system of snakes with hearts located in relatively close proximity to their heads

 

5. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is a true statement about sea snakes?

(A) They frequently rely on waves of muscle contractions from the lower torso to the head to supplement the work of the heart.

(B) They cannot effectively regulate their blood pressure when placed in seawater and tilted at an angle with the head pointed downward.

(C) They are more likely to have a heart located in close proximity to their heads than are arboreal snakes.

(D) They become acutely vulnerable to the effects of gravitational pressure on their circulatory system when they are placed in a terrestrial environment.

(E) Their cardiovascular system is not as complicated as that of arboreal snakes.

 

6. The author suggests that which of the following is a disadvantage that results from the location of a snake’s heart in close proximity to its head?

(A) A decrease in the efficiency with which the snake regulates the flow of blood to the brain

(B) A decrease in the number of orientations in space that a snake can assume without loss of blood flow to the brain

(C) A decrease in blood pressure at the snake’s midpoint when it is tilted at various angles with its head up

(D) An increase in the tendency of blood to pool at the snake’s head when the snake is tilted at various angles with its head down

(E) An increase in the amount of effort required to distribute blood to and from the snake’s tail

 

7. The primary purpose of the lines in bold/italics is to

(A) introduce a topic that is not discussed earlier in the passage

(B) describe a more efficient method of achieving an effect discussed in the previous paragraph

(C) draw a conclusion based on information elaborated in the previous paragraph

(D) discuss two specific examples of phenomena mentioned at the end of the previous paragraph

(E) introduce evidence that undermines a vie reported earlier in the passage

 

8. In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which of the following?

(A) Explaining adaptations that enable the terrestrial snake to cope with the effects of gravitational pressure on its circulatory system

(B) Comparing the circulatory system of the sea snake with that of the terrestrial snake

(C) Explaining why the circulatory system of the terrestrial snake is different from that of the sea snake

(D) Pointing out features of the terrestrial snake’s cardiovascular system that make it superior to that of the sea snake

(E) Explaining how the sea snake is able to neutralize the effects of gravitational pressure on its circulatory system

 

 

9. What is the synonym of the word ‘arboreal’ in the given paragraph?

(A) herbivorous

(B) arborous

(C) amorous

(D) amphibian

(E) diluvium

 

10. What is the antonym of the word ‘proximity’ in the given paragraph?

(A) closeness

(B) hapless

(C) nearness

(D) remoteness

(E) ambiguity

 

(RC-2) Directions (Q. 1–10): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words/ phrases have been given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Farmers have progressed the world over yet they are languishing in this country. Despite decades of industrial development, about 600 million Indians, or roughly half the population, depend on growing crops or rearing animals to earn a living. The country still relies on imports of essential items, such as pulses and cooking oil. Almost half of the average Indian household’s expenditure is on food, an important factor behind inflation. Food security at the micro level remains elusive. The global development experience, especially of the BRICS countries, reveals that one percentage point growth in agriculture is at least two to three times more effective in reducing poverty than the same degree of growth emanating from the non-agriculture sector.

Of late, the woes of the farmer have exacerbated. Untimely rain damaged winter crops in northern India. The heat wave killed more than 2000 people - mostly working in the fields. Suicides by farmers, owing to the low price of their produce, are almost a recurrent tragedy. There is general concern over the monsoon; patchy or inadequate rainfall can spell disaster. Low productivity is a chronic problem because of the shrinking size of the cultivated plots. Two-grain harvests a year are fairly routine. But the yields are low by global standards. The policy message for reforming agriculture is very clear. The areas which merit urgent and concerted attention to streamlining agriculture revolve around investment, incentive, and institutions. We need to rationalise and prune input subsidies. The savings, thus generated, should be invested in agriculture - Research & Development at rural roads, rural education, irrigation and water works. Higher levels of investment in agriculture both by the public and private sector can yield much better results. Policy -makers must be bold to bite the bullet and drastically cut subsidies which will open the avenue for increasing the size of the public investment. One way to contain the subsidy bill is to provide subsidies directly to farmers. Private investment is the engine of agricultural growth. Again, it responds to incentives. Much of the adverse impact on incentives comes from strangulating the domestic market under the Essential Commodities Act (ECA) 1955. This law allows the state to restrict movement of agro-products across state boundaries. Furthermore, the law bans the storage of large quantities of any of the 90 commodities, including onions and wheat. The intention is to deter ‘hoarding’, but it has adversely affected investment in cold storages and warehouses. Therefore, a substantial quantity of crops rots before they reach the dining table.

 

1. Which of the following sectors is sluggish in our country compared to the others?

(a) Industrial sector

(b) Agricultural sector

(c) Private sector

(d) Technological sector

(e) Service sector

 

2. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'elusive' as used in the passage?

(a) Attractive

(b) Enticing

(c) unattainable

(d) Confronting

(e) Encountering

 

3. According to the passage which of the following is an important factor behind inflation?

(a) Progress of middle class

(b) Expenditure on food by household

(c) Low agricultural productivity

(d) Irrational fertilizer subsidy

(e) Increasing rate of MSP

4. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in the meaning of the word 'drastically' as used in the passage?

(a) Strikingly

(b) Immensely

(c) Plenty

(d) Moderately

(e) Overly

 

5. How is Essential Commodities Act (ECA) 1955 counterproductive for the farmers?

(A) This demotivates investments in the cold storages and warehouses.

(B) Free movement of goods in the entire country is regulated.

(C) This encourages hoarding of non-essential commodities.

(a) Only (A)

(b) Only (B)

(c) Only (A) and (B)

(d) All (A), (B) and (C)

(e) Only (C)

 

6. Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in the meaning of the word 'exacerbated' as used in the passage?

(a) Aggravated

(b) Annoyed

(c) Embittered

(d) Emboldened

(e) Alleviated

 

7. Which of the following is a cause of low production in India?

(a) Low fertility soil

(b) Lesser technological expertise

(c) Lack of HYV seeds

(d) Lack of irrigation facility

(e) None of the above

 

8. What has been suggested by the author for reforming agriculture?

(a) Rationalizing subsidies

(b) Providing subsidies directly to the farmer's bank accounts.

(c) Scrapping ECA 1955

(d) All of the above

(e) None of these

 

9. Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word 'strangulating' as used in the passage?

(a) Blocking

(b) Regulating

(c) Planning

(d) Passing

(e) Breathing

 

10. Which of the following is a matter of annoyance for farmers in northern India?

(a) Loss of fertility

(b) Soil erosion

(c) Much damage caused due to unseasonal rainfall.

(d) Drastic cut in subsidies

(e) Lack of effective policy

 

(RC- 3) Directions (Q.1-10) Each of the reading comprehension questions is based on the content of a passage. After reading the passage, answer all questions pertaining to it on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For each question, select the best answer of the choices given.

The subject “Good Governance” is both topical and timely. It is an axiom of political science that a State comes into being for life but it exists for good life. The duty of the state is not only to protect life and liberty but goes further, to enable the people to live in a measure of physical and mental comfort. Democracy is a government by the citizens themselves. The people should realise that they are responsible for choosing the right and proper persons to represent them in national affairs. In colonial administration the government was different from the people. Those governments ruled but without the consent and concurrence of the people. This old concept still persists in the masses today. They do not realise that the general election is the occasion for them to choose a government for themselves. On the contrary, the masses feel that the franchise is a patronage to be conferred on their kith and kin, or the local candidate, or one of their caste and religious fraternity. In mature democracies, a person who changes his party affiliation or crosses the floor, seldom gets re-elected by the electorate. They do not trust him to stand firm by the policies and programmes proposed by him. In India a person who was in the Congress Government and immediately thereafter in the Janata Government and then in Chandrashekhar Government was re-elected and came once again into the Congress Government!

The electorate votes for a criminal or a corrupt candidate, and bemoans that the country has a bad government. The electorate does not realise that even as it contributes to its own household expenditure, it has to contribute to the country’s governance. It is easily misled by the unscrupulous promises of political parties of free food, free clothes, free electricity, free everything. Even enlightened people plead for tax concessions, subsidies and incentives oblivious of the fact that they are met by borrowings which in turn impose burdens indirectly on themselves. Besides, in a true democracy, the people voluntarily observe the laws, rules and regulations as they are forged by themselves in the interest of good governance. It is only because 90% of the people abide by the laws and 10% transgress them that the state is able to maintain order and harmony. If the situation were reversed with 90% transgressing the law and 10% abiding by it, there can be no organised society, no peace and harmony. Some of the advanced countries, notably Switzerland, have perhaps the highest degree of compliance. A mere board stating that the road is closed will be complied with by almost 100% of the people.

 

1. Which of the following is supposed to be the most relevant duty of the state?

(a) to ensure sovereignty of the region

(b) to ensure prosperity of the region

(c) to look after the welfare of its people

(d) to develop better terms with other nations

(e) None of these

 

2. What is the basic difference between democracy and colonial rule?

(a) In a democracy, people’s will prevails, whereas in a colonial rule, ruler’s will prevails.

(b) Democracy is a rule by different parties whereas a colonial rule is a single-party rule.

(c) Democracy can be opposed by the people but such is not the case with colonial rule.

(d) A colonial rule can be converted into a democracy but the same cannot happen with a democracy.

(e) None of these

 

3. If the people want to have a responsible government in a democracy

(a) they must call for free and fair elections.

(b) they should take charge of the elections.

(c) they should elect educated and experienced representatives.

(d) they should look for single-party rule.

(e) they should elect desirable candidates.

 

4. Why does a person changing his party find it hard to get re-elected in mature democracies?

(a) Because political parties suspect his fidelity.

(b) Because he loses his image in the political circle.

(c) Because his eligibility for fighting elections gets questioned.

(d) Because he has to depend upon the stand of his new party.

(e) None of these

 

5. In a country like India, who is mainly responsible for good or bad governance?

(a) The system of electing our representatives

(b) The political parties

(c) The voters

(d) The political party in power

(e) None of these

 

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage?

(a) Good governance is related to the welfare of the people.

(b) We have a mature democracy in India.

(c) The leaders who change parties face hurdles in getting re-elected in our country.

(d) Colonial rule was much better than the present democracy.

(e) None of these

 

7. What makes Switzerland a successful democracy?

(a) Clear instructions regarding public concerns marked on boards, even on roadsides

(b) High rate of literacy among the populace

(c) Law-abiding citizens

(d) Governance with a mission

(e) None of these

 

8. Which of the following suggestions may not be necessary to make India a mature democracy?

(a) The voters should elect candidates with clean image.

(b) The voters should not entertain candidates who frequently change their party and ideology.

(c) The voters should shun their narrow interests while voting for their candidates.

(d) The people should respect the law of the land.

(e) None of these

 

9. With which stream does the author seem to be related?

(a) Sociology

(b) History

(c) Political Science

(d) Constitution of India

(e) None of these

 

10.what is the synonym of CONCURRENCE?

(a) satisfaction

(b) agreement

(c) participation

(d) loyalty

(e) dependence

 

(RC- 4) Directions: (1 - 10): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

Simple definition of On Line Shopping or Shopping on the Web is enabling you to buy and sell through your computer on –line using Web or Internet environment. One reason people like without a salesperson because you can browse inside the shop for number of hours at your leisure time without a salesperson peering over the shoulder and making unwanted recommendations. As a customer, we may find this approach convenient and less time consuming, but how does this affect the economy as a whole? Is it safe to pay credit card online? Is buying and selling products over the internet considered as a risky business for merchants? Is the Web going to replace old-fashioned stores? Is virtual shopping really is better than the real thing? Cyberspace is a vast territory where computers meet and exchange information. In this 21st century, cyberspace has already to your computer will look you into wealth of goods and services.

In your home, modern box attached to your computer will look you into wealth of goods and services. Not only does it allow you to talk to your friends on the other side of the world, but also allows you to watch a movie, buy airline tickets, pay bills and even get cash, People in developed countries like U.S. and Canada have already started using On Line Shopping as a routine mode of their purchasing goods and services. Internet shoppers still believe that there is no secure and convenient way of paying on the Internet. Consumers are concerned with two main security fears. They are worried that their credit card information is jeopardizing while travelling over the net. They also express concern over data privacy whereby the vendors and blanking institutions can tamper with the data and easily record their purchasing habits. These fears over privacy and security have kept E- Commerce from taking off.

 

1. What does the passage imply by the word ‘Virtual shopping’?

(1) shopping widely

(2) shopping spree

(3) literal shopping

(4) net shopping

(5) a wider perspective of e-com.

 

2. Why is it risky to pay online?

(1) It reveals the identity of the buyer

(2) It intrudes upon the privacy of the buyer

(3) The buyer is apprehensive of his credit card details going over the net

(4) The merchants may record the buyer’s purchasing habits.

(5) None of these

 

3. Which of the following statement is/are TRUE______?

(A) Cyberspace has opened an immense wealth of services but has affected the economy too.

(B) Data privacy is no longer a thing of the past.

(C) People in developing countries use online shopping as a routine mode

(1) Only a

(2) Only b and c

(3) a, b and c

(4) Only c

(5) None of these

 

4. What is the authors view regarding shopping on the web?

(1) shopping on the net makes the buyers wary of financial transactions.

(2) shopping in the stores is on obsolete idea.

(3) Net shopping has affected our economy on the whole

(4) Payment by credit card easily outnumbers cash transactions.

(5) All of the above

 

5. Why has online shopping caught on so much in the U.S.A. and Canada?

(1) The developed countries can well afford to indulge in such luxuries

(2) The pace of life is superfast in these countries

(3) Virtual shoppers need not hide their credit card information.

(4) Banks etc do not tamper with the financial details of the net-shoppers

(5) None of these

 

For Qs (6-8): Choose the word that is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word as used in passage.

6. Environment

(1) provision

(2) conditions

(3) circumstantial

(4) department

(5) enclave

 

7. Browse

(1) look through

(2) enjoy

(3) examine leisurely

(4) nibble

(5) spend

 

8. Modern

(1) gadget

(2) appliance

(3) device

(4) apparatus

(5) equipment

 

For Qs (9-10): Choose the word that is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word as used in passage.

 

9. Jeopardized

(1) safe

(2) risked

(3) benefit

(4) secure

(5) endangered

 

10. Peering

(1) leaning

(2) looking

(3) staring

(4) peeking

(5) peeping

 

(RC- 5) Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

 

Financial Inclusion (FI) is an emerging priority for banks that have nowhere else to go to achieve business growth. The viability of FI business is under question, because while banks and their delivery partners continue to make investments, they haven't seen commensurate returns. In markets like India, most programmes are focused on customer on-boarding, an expensive process which people often find difficult to afford, involving issuance of smart cards to the customers. However, large-scale customer acquisition hasn't translated into large-scale business, with many accounts lying dormant and therefore yielding no return on the bank's investment. For the same reason, Business Correspondent Agents, who constitute the primary channel for financial inclusion, are unable to pursue their activity as a full-time job. One major reason for this state of events is that the customer on-boarding process is often delayed after the submission of documents (required to validate the details of the concerned applicant) by the applicant and might take as long as two weeks. By this time the initial enthusiasm of applicants fades away. Moreover, the delivery partners don't have the knowledge and skill to propose anything other than the most basic financial products to the customer and hence do not serve their banks"' goal of expanding the offering in unbanked markets.

Contrary to popular perception, the inclusion segment is not a singular impoverished, undifferentiated mass and it is important to navigate its diversity to identify the right target customers for various programmes. Rural markets do have their share of rich people who do not use banking services simply because they are inconvenient to access or have low perceived value. At the same time, urban markets, despite a high branch density, have multitude of low wage earners outside the financial net. Moreover, the branch timings of banks rarely coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class.

Creating affordability is crucial in tapping the unbanked market. No doubt pricing is a tool, but banks also need to be innovative in right-sizing their proposition to convince customers that they can derive big value even from small amounts. One way of doing this is to show the target audience that a bank account is actually a lifestyle enabler, a convenient and safe means to send money to family or make a variety of purchases. Once banks succeed in hooking customers with this value proposition they must sustain their interest by introducing a simple and intuitive user application, ubiquitous access over mobile and other touch points, and adopting a banking mechanism which is not only secure but also reassuring to the customer. Technology is the most important element of financial inclusion strategy and an enabler of all others. The choice of technology is therefore a crucial decision, which could make or mar the agenda. Of the various section criteria, cost is perhaps the most important. This certainly does not mean buying the cheapest package, but rather choosing that solution which by scaling transactions to huge volumes reduces per unit operating cost. An optimal mix of these strategies would no doubt offer an innovative means of expansion in the unbanked market.

 

1. Which of the following facts is true as per the passage?

(1) People from rural areas have high perceived value of banking services.

(2) Cost is not a valid criterion for technological pack selection for financial-inclusion initiatives.

(3) The inclusion segment is a singular impoverished_ undifferentiated mass.

(4) The branch timings of banks generally do not coincide with the off-work hours of the labour class in urban markets

(5) All the given statements are true

 

2. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons do the delivery partners fail to serve their bank-‘s goal to expand in the unbanked markets?

(A) They do not have adequate client base to sell they financial products.

(B) They do not have adequate knowledge and skills explain anything beyond basic financial products to the customers.

(C) They do not have the skills to operate advanced technological aids that are a prerequisite to tap the unbanked-market.

 

1) Only (B)

2) Only (C)

3)All (A), (B) & (C)

4) Only (A)

5) Both (B) and (C)

 

3. According to the passage, for which of the following reasons is the viability of financial inclusion under question?

(1) Banks always prefer the cheapest package (to cut cost) while making a choice of technology to be used.

(2) The Business Correspondent Agents are highly demotivated to pursue their activity as a full-time job.

(3) The investments made by banks and their delivery partners are not yielding equal amounts of returns.

(4) Banks do not have adequate number of delivery partners required to tap the unbanked market.

(5) Banks do not have adequate manpower to explore the diversity of the unbanked market and thereby identify the right target customers for various programs.

 

4. In the passage, the author has specified which of the following characteristics of the customer on-boarding process?

(1) It involves collection of documents from the applicants in order to validate their details.

(2) It involves issuance of smart cards to the customers.

(3) It suffers from latency as it takes a long time after submission of documents by the customer

(4) It is an expensive process which people find difficult to afford.

(5) All of the given characteristics have been specified

 

5. What did the author try to highlight in the passage?

(A) The ailing condition of financial inclusion business at present

(B) Strategies that may help banks expand in the unbanked market

(C) Role of government in modifying the existing financial-inclusion policies

(1) Both A & B

(2) All A, B, & C

(3) only C

(4)Only A

(5) Only B

 

6. According to the passage, which of the following ways may help banks sustain the interest of their customers after hooking them?

(A) Adoption of a banking mechanism which is not only secure but reassuring to the customers

(B) Increasing the number of delivery partners in rural market

(C) Introduction of a simple and intuitive user application

(1) Only (A)

(2) Only (C)

(3) Only (B)

(4) All (A), (B) and (C)

(5) Both (A) and (C)

 

For Qs (7-8): Choose the word which is MOST SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

7. Multitude

1) Impoverished

2) Handful

3) Acknowledged

4) Plenty

5) Solitude

 

8. Ubiquitous

(1) Quintessential

(2) Popular

(3) Omnipresent

(4) Simplified

(5) Abnormal

 

For Qs (9-10): Choose the word which is MOST OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

9. Dormant

1) Emaciated

2) Pertinent

3) Cornered

4) Rejected

5) Active

 

10. Delayed

1) Perturbed

2) Popularised

3) Expedited

4) Stabilised

5) Represse

 

(RC-6) Directions (1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Some words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

In the olden days, students used to stay in the teacher’s house and learn. At a young age, boys were sent to the teacher’s house. This system of education was called ‘Gurukula’.

Prabhakaran was a boy of twelve. He was staying in his teacher’s house to learn Sanskrit. Prabhakaran was a good student and his teacher liked him. But the teacher didn’t show his affection towards the boy. Rather, he was stricter towards him. One day Prabhakaran was not very attentive in the class. This made the teacher angry. He beat him severely. Prabhakaran wept for some time. Then he wanted to wreak his vengeance on the teacher. In his rage he decided to kill the teacher. He chalked out a plan for this; Prabhakaran would climb up to the roof of his teacher’s bedroom with heavy granite stone and drop it on the teacher’s head when he was asleep. So after taking the dinner, Prabhakaran went out, picked up a heavy stone and climbed to the roof of the room. After some time his teacher and his wife retired to bed. Before sleeping they talked for some time. During the talk Prabhakaran heard his name being mentioned. He listened to their conversation attentively. The teacher’s wife was equally fond of Prabhakaran. She was telling the teacher, ‘this morning you were very harsh on Prabhakaran. You beat him umpteen times, mercilessly. Is he not the best boy in your class? If you behave in this manner he will run away from here and you will lose a good student.’

The teacher replied, ‘you are right, I should not have been so cruel to him. But you know he was not attentive in the class. I was taking an important lesson and he was talking to another boy. When I saw it I lost my temper. Prabhakaran should not miss important lessons. So I beat him in such a way that the punishment may deter him from such indifference in future.’

On hearing this, Prabhakaran became very sad. It was with good intention that the teacher punished him. He was overwhelmed with remorse. The whole night he sat on the roof. The next morning after lessons, he approached his teacher when he was alone and confessed to him everything.

 

1. Why did the student decide to remain on the roof whole night?

(1) He felt so guilty that he did not have courage to come down.

(2) He waited for the teacher to sleep

(3) He waited to hear the conversation in the teacher’s room

(4) He did not know the way to come down

(5) None of these

 

2. What was the plan of the student to take revenge?

(1) To create a situation so that the teacher becomes helpless.

(2) To kill the wife of the teacher

(3) To peep into his bedroom from the roof top

(4) To crush the teacher’s head with a stone at night

(5) None of these

 

3. In which system of education was Prabhakaran studying?

(1) The system of read and recite

(2) The system of day and night school

(3) Staying in teacher’s house and work for him

(4) The Gurukula system of learning Sanskrit

(5) None of these

 

4. Why did the teacher not show affection to Prabhakaran?

(1) He developed hatred towards him

(2) He knew that Prabhakaran was a potential killer

(3) Prabhakaran did not have sympathy towards teacher’s wife

(4) The teacher had seen him talking with other boys

(5) None of these

 

5. The purpose of the teacher to punish the boy was –

(1) to reform him as he was bad in studies

(2) to teach him as he was not paying attention

(3) to send message to the class to improve their behavior

(4) to make the boy vindictive

(5) None of these

 

6. Which behavior irritated the teacher most?

(1) Going to roof top with granite stone

(2) Listening to the bedroom conversation

(3) Indulging into the conversation with other boys during class

(4) The weeping of Prabhakaran

(5) None of these

 

7. In the opinion of teacher’s wife, Prabhakaran was …..

(1) most dishonest, insincere boy

(2) the best student in the class

(3) a short tempered sensitive boy

(4) a student who deserved much more punishment

(5) a sycophant who used to praise the teacher for no reason

 

8. What was the Prabhakaran’s reaction on hearing the conversation in his teacher’s bedroom?

(1) should wait for the couple to sleep and kill them both

(2) how wrong am I to kill such a nice teacher

(3) I should jump onto the bed of the couple from roof top

(4) Alas! I should not have heard the conversation

(5) None of these

 

9. Which of the following is TRUE in the context of the passage?

(1) The Gurukula system of education was forced on Prabhakaran

(2) The teacher assaulted the student mercilessly

(3) The teacher’s wife was astonished at the behavior of Prabhakaran

(4) Prabhakaran did not have guilt feeling even after hearing the conversation

(5) Prabhakaran had no plan to kill the teacher

 

10. Which of the following is NOT TRUE in the context of the passage?

(1) In old days boys at young age were sent to teacher’s house

(2) But for bedroom conversation, Prabhakaran would not have killed the teacher

(3) Prabhakaran was the best student in the class

(4) The teacher’s wife was of the view that Prabhakaran might run away

(5) The teacher was teaching an important lesson

 

Directions (11-12): Which of the following words is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage?

 

11. Remorse

(1) greed

(2) satisfaction

(3) morse

(4) guilt

(5) accuracy

 

12. Severely

(1) harshly

(2) calmly

(3) lightly

(4) happily

(5) accidentally

 

Directions (13-15): Which of the following words is the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage:

 

13. Retired

(1) tired

(2) exhausted

(3) fell

(4) went

(5) reclined

 

14. Umpteen

(1) twenty

(2) nineteen

(3) many

(4) regular

(5) rarely

 

15. Deter

(1) abstain

(2) encourage

(3) deploy

(4) pull

(5) stop

 

(RC -7) Directions: (1-6): Read the following passage carefully and answers the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

 

With Finance Commission recommendations, Centre-state relations set to undergo dramatic change. Any big change requires big ideas, decisive leadership and happy coincidence of circumstances. Nothing illustrates this better than the unfolding story of cooperative federalism in India.

As chief minister of Gujarat, Narendra Modi had often argued that the central government implemented schemes were at odds with the state's needs and priorities. For example, schemes that provided funds for electrification were at best of limited value to Gujarat since it had already achieved near 100% electrification. This state could have spent the money provided for such a scheme more productively if allowed to use it for other purposes.

In advancing this view, Modi was joined by other chief ministers such as Vasundhara Raje of Rajasthan who argued that the vast numbers of central schemes further restricted their fiscal space because many of them required matching contributions by them from their otherwise untied funds. Once these matching funds were committed to access central schemes, states were left with very limited funds for even the most important expenditure items such as enforcement of law and order.

Nevertheless, this system has remained entrenched in one form or another in the last several decades on account of coincidence of three factors. First, outside of state leaders and a few economists and policy analysts, advocates of the view that true federalism means giving greater fiscal space to states and trusting them in setting their own priorities have been few and far between.

Second, the Finance Commission ­ appointed once every five years ­ plays a key role in the division of tax revenues between Centre and states. Consistent with the first point, successive Finance Commissions held untied funds to the states at or below 30% of the divisible tax pool. Only the 13th Finance Commission exceeded this mark, setting states' share at 32%.

Finally, successive central governments have chosen to transfer the bulk of the remaining funds to the states via central and centrally sponsored schemes. With nearly 8% growth over an entire decade, tax revenues have significantly expanded. Alongside, central and centrally sponsored schemes and the revenue resources they absorb have expanded dramatically as well.

Two key factors have come together to dramatically alter this equilibrium. One, India now has a prime minister who was once a chief minister and strongly feels that cooperative federalism means greater fiscal and legislative space for states. And two, by a happy coincidence, the chairman and members of the 14th Finance Commission believe in genuine federalism themselves.

Moreover, they have recognised the opportunity offered by a prime minister at the helm who truly believes in the power of states and their leaders. Accordingly, they have recommended that starting 2015-16, states be awarded 42% of the divisible pool of tax revenues. This is a gigantic and unprecedented 10% jump in devolution. Predictably , the prime minister and his Cabinet have accepted this bold recommendation of the 14th Finance Commission.

What implications does this change have? For starters, with larger transfers coming as untied funds, states also have greater responsibility in discharging their duties. It is likely that they will now have to take greater responsibility in areas that have been hitherto covered by the Centre, especially those falling on the state list. States will also have to do this in ways that are more consistent with their priorities and not according to “one size fits all’’schemes. By the same token, with a lower share in the divisible pool the Centre's fiscal space will shrink, requiring a rethink of central and centrally sponsored schemes. One might ask where does Niti Aayog fit into this story? I am tempted to say that in replacing the Planning Commission by Niti Aayog, Prime Minister Modi may have anticipated the 14th Finance Commission. Under the previous regime, the Centre was often seen as “giver’’ and states as “recipients’’ thereby making the latter feel that they were less than equal partners. In replacing the Planning Commission by Niti Aayog, the prime minister sought to change that equation and forge an equal relationship between the two sides. As such this change represents a step towards cooperative federalism.

We will have a more complete picture of the emerging Centre-state relations this Saturday when the finance minister presents the budget. But even with what we now know, one thing is clear: in the years to come, Niti Aayog will have to play a much greater role in the knowledge space. Greater fiscal freedom combined with greater legislative freedom in areas covered by the concurrent list of the Constitution means that states will need to play a more active role in designing their own programmes and policies. As they do so, they will need to reach out to data, analysis and expert advice. The design of Niti Aayog as per the Cabinet Note of 1 January 2015 positions it well to provide these services. By the same token, those of us at Niti Aayog have to work hard in the months to come to build new strengths so that we do not disappoint the states that reach out to us for advice and assistance. We shall see.

 

Q1 As the Chief Minister of Gujarat, Narendra Modi why argued that the Central Government implemented schemes are at odds for the state government?

a) Because the Central Government was not paying the equal amount of funds for all the states.

b) Because, he being from the opposition, want to criticize the steps taken by the Central Govenrment and leave an impression on the general public mind that what a crook central government is.

c) Because Central Government doesn't take in the picture all the perspective while allocating the funds.

d) Because he wanted more funds for filling his and his cabinet minister's pocket.

e) None of these

 

Q2. Why Vasundhara Raje decided to join the views of Narendra Modi?

a) Being from the same party, she had no choice but to join hand in hand with her party leader.

b) Vasundhra Raje and Narendra Modi had a hidden plan of going against any of the good initiatives taken by the Central Government.

c) Vasundhra Raje was also facing the atrocities of Central Government and want to raise her voice with Narendra Modi.

d) Vasundhra Raje, being a Chief Minister of a state of India, where central schemes are restricted the fiscal space of the state government, feels that it is injustice on the part of Central Government.

 

Q3. The writer referred the PM's view of cooperative federalism, what do you understand by cooperative federalism?

a) It means a more prominent role for the Centre, than states.

b) It means the competitiveness between the Centre and the state.

c) It means more competitiveness among states

d) It means a sync in relation among the states and the centre.

e) It means a sync in relation among the states

 

Q4. What does writer meant by "one size fits all" schemes?

a) NITI Ayog will makes schemes that would be equally beneficial for all.

b) Previously, the schemes were more transparent and object oriented.

c) Planning Commission were making schemes without considering the crucial scenario in the sates.

d) Planning Commission was making more precise schemes, so as to address the actual needs of the states.

e) None of these

 

Q5. Why the Government did a 10% increase in devolution?

a) To transfer the funds in the hands of state.

b) Shed of the extra responsibility of the state sponsored schemes.

c) To make state more self dependent.

d) To increase the extent of authority on states.

e) To appease the non BJP states in India.

 

Q6. What is the drastic change of the policy in NITI Ayog from that was in Planning Commission?

a) Now states will have equal equation with the centre.

b) States will have more financial freedom

c) Centre has given the responsibility to states to draft every scheme.

d) Both a and b

e) Both b and c

 

Directions (7-10): Which of the following words is the same in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage:

Q7. Entrenched

a) disorganize

b) unsettle

c) establish

d) weaken

e) dissuade

 

Q8. Helm

a) rein

b) bottom

c) last

d) large

e) middle

 

Q9. Hitherto

a) last

b) until now

c) since

d) As far as

e) likely

 

Q10. Devolution

a) dispersal of power

b) control of power

c) bound by power

d) easing of power

e) deprived of power

 

(RC-8) Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

For years now, George W. Bush has told Americans that he would increase the number of troops in Iraq only if, the commanders on the ground asked him to do so. It was not a throw away live. Bush said it from the very first days of the war, when he and pentagon boss Donald Rumsfeld were criticized for going to war with too few troops. He said it right up until last summer, stressing at a news conference in Chicago that Iraq commander General George Casey will make the decisions as to how many troops we have there. Seasoned military people suspected that the line was a dodge that the civilians who ran the pentagon were testing their personal theory that war can be fought on the cheap and the brass simply knew better than to ask for more in any case the president repeated the mantra to dismiss any suggestion that the war was going badly. Who, after all, knew better than the generals on the ground? Now as the war nears the end of its fourth year and the number of Americans killed has surpassed 3,000 Bush has dropped the generals know best line sometime next week the president is expected to propose a surge in the number of 45 forces in Iraq for a period of up to two years. A senior official said reinforcements numbering about 20,000 troops and may be more could be in place within months; the surge would be achieved by extending the stay of some forces already in Iraq and accelerating the deployment of others.

The irony is that while the generals would have liked more troops in the past, they are cool to the idea of spending more now that’s in past because the politicians and commanders had trouble agreeing on what the goal of a surge would further erode the readiness of the US’s already stressed ground forces and even those who back a surge are under no illusions about what it would mean to the casualty rate. If you put more American troops on the front line said a white house official, you’re going to have more casualties. Coming from Bush, a man known for bold strokes the surge is a strange half-measure-too large for the political climate at house too small to crush the insurgency in Iraq and surely three years too late Bush has waved off a bipartisan rescue mission out of pride stubbornness or ideology or same combination of the three, Rather than reversing course, as all the wise elders of the Iraq study group advised, the commander in chief is betting that more troops will lead the way to what one white house official calls “victory.”

 

1. Bush and Rumsfeld had received brick bats for-

(1) waging a war against Iraq

(2) testing their personal theories

(3) their assertion in the news conference in Chicago

(4) turning down the demands of general George Casey

(5) None of these

 

2. George Bush gave an impression to his subjects that his army commanders were given the autonomy to decide-

(1) when to start or stop the war in Iraq

(2) the reasonable requirement of American troops to fight the war in Iraq

(3) how many troops should Iraq use to fight against the Americans

(4) the pentagon policies regarding war in Iraq

(5) None of these

 

3. From the content of the passage, which of the following can be definitely inferred?

(A) The US troops in Iraq are happy with their victory

(B) The troops already fighting the war in Iraq are sufficient enough to combat the situation effectively

(C) The Generals who were earlier not in favor of increasing troops in Iraq are now insisting on surge.

(1) A and B only

(2) B and C only

(3) A and C only

(4) None

(5) All of three

 

4. Which of the following best describes Bush’s persistent reaction to the observations that the Iraq war strategy was not effective due to inadequate American forces?

(1) Such strategies are better left to army commanders to decide on the ground.

(2) Civilians are the best assessors of such strategies

(3) War can be fought on the cheap

(4) The brass knew better of war but not of politics.

(5) None of these

 

5. The author of the passage appears to be-

(1) in favor of enhancement of American troops in Iraq

(2) critical about Bush’s strategy of handling situation in Iraq

(3) an impartial assessor of the US strategy related to the situation in Iraq.

(4) an indifferent on looker of what is happening in Iraq

(5) inclined to the idea of with drawl of American troops to save casualty.

 

6. Which of the following is the assessment of the commander-in chief of US forced in Iraq on the present situation there?

(1) America’s desired goal will be achieved if more troops are deployed in Iraq.

(2) Withdrawal of troops from Iraq is essential to raise the moral of US army.

(3) Further strengthening of the US army in Iraq will be suicidal as it means more destruction of US forces.

(4) Pentagon’s civilians should not have been allowed to interfere with the army commanders’ strategies.

(5) None of these

 

7. Which of the following strategies would achieve the desired increase in American forces in Iraq?

(A) Continuation obstay of troops for a further period.

(B) Expeditious deployment of additional troops.

(C) Seeking additional input from politicians and commanders of neighboring friendly countries.

(1) A and C only

(2) C only

(3) B only

(4) A and B only

(5) None of these

 

8. Why do the army commanders disfavor enhancement of troops now?

(A) More force means more casualties.

(B) Difference of opinion between politicians and commanders about the aim of the troop enhancement

(C) Probable adverse psychological impact on ground forces.

(1) Only A and B

(2) Only B and C

(3) All the three

(4) Only A and C

(5) None of these

 

9. Which of the following made Bush change his thinking about the requirement of forces in Iraq?

(A) The unreasonably long period for which the war continued

(B) The large number of American soldiers killed in the war

(C) Demand from the army commanders

(1) Only A and C

(2) Only A and B

(3) Only B and C

(4) All three

(5) Only C

 

Directions (10-12): Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage?

 

10. Cool

(1) Warm

(2) Enthusiastic

(3) Unwelcome

(4) Intemperate

(5) Indifferent

 

11. Surge

(1) Enhancement

(2) Trivializing

(3) Reduction

(4) Strengthening

(5) Up gradation

 

12. Stubbornness

(1) Uncertainty

(2) Weakness

(3) Acceptability

(4) Infirmity

(5) Flexibility

 

Directions (13-15): Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in passage?

 

13. Illusion

(1) Reality

(2) Reflection

(3) Fantastic

(4) Delusion

(5) Deviation

 

14. Insurgency

(1) Rebellion

(2) Ingredient

(3) Combat

(4) Debacle

(5) Violation

 

15. Irony

(1) Leveling

(2) Precaution

(3) Controversy

(4) Mockery

(5) Perception

 

(RC-9) Directions (1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words are given in bold in the passage to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

The G-20, a group of 20 major economies of the word has come of age within a short period of two years as it adopted summit level format only in the year 2008. Perhaps, it is the only multilateral group which holds two summit meeting in a year. As it has emerged as a major global forum of most advanced countries to manage crisis ridden global financial and economic system, it is poised to replace the G-8 club of eight rich countries. Also, it has the potential to emerge as a major, global forum for North-South Dialogue, as both developed and developing countries are its members. The term ‘North’ denotes the developed countries, which are mostly located in the Northern hemisphere, whereas the term ‘South’ refers to the developing countries as they are largely located in the Southern hemisphere.

The economic and political might of the G-20 is also noteworthy. Collectively, the total population of G-20 countries is two-thirds of the global population. The G-20 economies comprise 85% of the global gross national product and 80% of the word trade. Geographically, the countries of G-20 cover all continents of the globe. Thus, in real sense, its nature and reach are global.

The fundamental purpose of G-20 is to bring together systemically important industrialized and developing economies to discuss key issues in the global economy. Thus, it is a forum for cooperation and consultation on matters pertaining to the International Financial System. It conducts studies, reviews and promotes discussion among key developed and developing economies of key policy issues pertaining to the promotion of International Financial Stability and seeks to address such issues that are beyond the responsibility of one country or organization.

 

1. Which among the following is NOT true in the context of the passage?

(1) Total population of G-20 countries is 2/3rd of the global population.

(2) G-20 economics comprises 85% of the total global GNP.

(3) G-8 club is a group of 8 most powerful economies.

(4) G-20 came into existence in the year 2008.

(5) None of these

 

2. G-20 group meeting held two times in a year because

(1) It is a group of developed and developing nations

(2) It has a potential to conduct two meetings

(3) It comprises 85% of the world’s total GNP

(4) It represents 80% of the World trade

(5) None of these

 

3. According to the passage G-20 will replace which group

(1) G-15

(2) G-4

(3) G-8

(4) G-7

(5) None of these

 

4. The fundamental purpose of G-20 is to

(1) group together the problems of developing and developed countries.

(2) to bring together systemically important industrialized and developing economies to discuss key issues in the economy.

(3) to conduct studies and reviews

(4) to tackle the problems of the world.

(5) None of these

 

5. Which of the following correctly describe the meaning of “North-South Dialogue”

(1) Negotiation between North for developing countries of G-20 and South for developed countries of G-8

(2) Dialogue between developed and developing countries situated in Northern & Southern Hemisphere respectively.

(3) Dialogue used for creating awareness

(4) It is a dialogue used as a theme of the G-20

(5) None of these

 

6. Why the author wants to highlight the importance of G-20.

(1) To make people aware about the G-20

(2) To bring out the important of the G-20

(3) Not mentioned in the passage

(4) To help the G-20 being popularize

(5) None of these

 

7. What is the view of the author about the G-20.

(1) Narrative

(2) Explanatory

(3) Criticizing

(4) Supportive & factual

(5) None of these

 

8. What does G-20 forum do to promote international financial stability?

(1) It helps the nations to fight poverty.

(2) It gives loan to the members

(3) It conducts studies, reviews and promotes discussion among key economies

(4) It invites discussion on various issues

(5) None of these

 

9. Why the reach & nature of G-20 is global according to the author?

(1) It is very global

(2) It is reachable to the poorest countries

(3) Its nature is supportive

(4) Its expansion is natural

(5) None of these

 

Directions (10-12): Choose the word which is most SIMILAR in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

10. Poised

(1) hovering

(2) ready

(3) equanimous

(4)important

(5) necessity

 

11. Pertaining

(1) related

(2) holding

(3) fitting

(4) suitable

(5) accessing

 

12. Dialogue

(1) session

(2) negotiation

(3) debate

(4) discussion

(5) drama

 

Directions (13-15): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

13. Format

(1) ruins

(2) particular

(3) system

(4) pattern

(5) disorganization

 

14. Multilateral

(1) unilateral

(2) managed

(3) common

(4) focused

(5) unknown

 

15. Fundamental

(1) trivial

(2) essential

(3) required

(4) elementary

(5) materially

 

 

(RC-10) Directions: Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

It seemed interesting that on the eve of Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s departure for France, the Indian and French governments issued similar statements on the prospects of an agreement on the purchase of the Rafale aircraft: that no single deal should be allowed to overshadow the Prime Minister’s visit. Indeed, India-France relations are much bigger than any one contract; they represent the cultural affinity and historic relations between two vibrant democracies. The items on the Prime Minister’s agenda reflected the range of commonalities — from the preservation of ancient architecture to the development of Puducherry and Chandigarh as smart cities; from the construction of semi-high-speed railway lines to cooperation on a space mission to Mars; from discussing anti-terror training to tackling climate change through renewable technologies and a robust nuclear partnership. The economic aspect of the relationship has been ignored for too long. Although more than a thousand French companies have a total investment of about $20 billion in India, bilateral trade is worth just $8 billion. While all this deserved attention, it was disappointing that the Prime Minister put the spotlight back on defence ties by making a surprise announcement on the purchase of 36 Rafale aircraft as the highlight of his talks with President François Hollande. If the outright purchase was a crucial military necessity, it could have been discussed a few weeks before or after the visit, as a political push for the deal was secondary to the technical specifications and delivery requirements. Moreover, the deal, which involves purchasing products off the shelf abroad, detracts from Mr. Modi’s “Make in India” initiative.

 

The breakthrough on the Areva nuclear equipment deal, on the other hand, shows the positive outcome of Mr. Modi’s and Mr. Hollande’s political push, combined with a “Make in India” twist. As in the case of Indo-U.S. nuclear negotiations, Mr. Modi and Mr. Hollande decided to clear the logjam by splitting the problem into different silos — allowing for separate mechanisms for the pricing issues and for the technical and legal aspects. The supplementary deal involving Areva and L&T producing heavy forging metal casing for nuclear reactors is an important step in localising some of the expensive parts. During his visit to Canada, where he hopes to sign a deal for uranium supplies, Mr. Modi means to take forward his plan to increase nuclear energy production. Given this objective, it may be useful for him to round off the visit by discussing his nuclear energy plans in Germany as well, which is now winding down on nuclear power but is at the cutting edge of nuclear safety research for the European Pressurised Reactors that are being considered for India.

Source-The Hindu

 

Q.1. Which of the following is the synonym of the word “Affinity”?

a) dissimilitude

b) Aversion

c) Antipathy

d) Resemblance

e) None of the above

 

Q.2. Which of the following is the meaning of the word ‘Logjam’?

a) A long traffic jam during Prime Minister Modi’s visit.

b) A state of mind where you cannot decide what to do.

c) A situation that seems irresolvable.

d) A place from where The French President used to work.

e) None of the above

 

Q.3. Which of the following is not the Synonym of the word ‘Overshadow’?

a) surpass

b) Exceed

c) Excel

d) Transcend

e) None of the above

 

Q.4. Which of the following option is on the agenda of the Prime Minister Narendra Modi as stated above?

a) Preservation of ancient architecture.

b) Development of Puducherry and Chandigarh as smart cities.

c) Construction of semi-high-speed railway lines.

d) All of the above.

e) None of the above.

 

Q.5. According to the passage, which of the following got the whole attention other than many important deals?

a) Cooperation on a space mission to Mars

b) Anti-terror training

c) General VK Singh’s evacuation of Indian citizens from Yemen.

d) Purchase of Rafale Fighters.

e) General VK Singh’s remark on the Press.

 

Q.6. Choose an appropriate Title for the above passage:

a) The Big Deal.

b) Modi’s Success.

c) Modi’s tour to France.

d) Rafale and beyond.

e) The Journey.

 

Q.7. Which of the following is not the Synonym of the word ‘Robust’?

a) Fragile

b) Durable

c) Resilient

d) Vigorous

e) Sturdy

 

Q.8. Which of the following is not the Synonym of ‘Outright’?

a) Absolute

b) Utter

c) Downright

d) Sheer

e) None of the above

 

Q.9. According to the passage, the ……………….. will be responsible for the economical production of Nuclear Power

a) Inviting French President Hollande to India.

b) Manufacturing of Dedicated freight corrider for the transportation of nuclear material.

c) Dedicating Many Public sector undertakings for the smooth running of power plants.

d) Areva and L&T deal to localize the manufacturing of required parts.

e) None of the above

 

Q.10. Which of the following is not true regarding the passage?

a) Prime Minister has agreed to purchase 46 Rafale aircrafts.

b) More than a thousand French companies have a total investment of about $20 billion in India.

c) Deal with two French companies for the manufacturing of nuclear equipments locally.

d) Prime Minister Modi is expected to sign a deal with Canada for Uranium supplies.

e) None of the above

 

 

ANSWER KEY

 

Reading Comprehension - 1

1. Ans. (b) - The passage discusses the problems faced by sea snakes when they are subjected to a terrestrial environment and then examines terrestrial snakes to illustrate how certain adaptations solved these problems.

2. Ans. (b) - The passage states explicitly in lines 11–17 that while sea snakes are in the ocean, the vertical pressure gradients in their blood vessels are counteracted by the pressure gradients in the water.

3. Ans. (b) - The passage states that arboreal snakes have hearts close to their heads and not at the midpoints of their bodies, so it is reasonable to conclude that any terrestrial snake that frequently assumes vertical postures would be unlikely to have hearts at their bodies’ midpoint.

4. Ans. (a) - The passage uses the problems sea snakes have when taken out of water to illustrate that without certain adaptations, terrestrial snakes would likely have similar problems.

5. Ans. (d) - The passage states that in certain postures, sea snakes placed in a terrestrial environment will lose all blood pressure at their brains, which is an acute vulnerability.

6. Ans. (e) - Because, as the passage states, it is more difficult for a snake with its heart close to its head to circulate blood to the tail, and therefore its body is likely to put more effort into circulating blood to the tail.

7. Ans. (d) - The end of the second paragraph refers to certain adaptations (line 23) that the third paragraph then goes on to identify and discuss.

8. Ans. (a) - The entire passage is devoted to an explanation of how terrestrial snakes have adapted to gravity’s influence

9. Ans. (b) - arboreal- living in trees., arborous- of, relating to, or formed by trees.

10. Ans. (d) - proximity- nearness in space, time, or relationship. , remoteness- far away

 

Reading Comprehension- 2

1. Ans. (b) - The agricultural sector is mentioned in the paragraph.

2. Ans. (c) - elusive- difficult to find, catch, or achieve.

3. Ans. (b) - It is mentioned in the given paragraph.

4. Ans. (d) - drastically'- Extreme in effect; severe or radical

5. Ans. (c) - Statements (A) and (B) are correct in the context.

6. Ans. (e) - exacerbated- make (a problem, bad situation, or negative feeling) worse.

Alleviated- make (suffering, deficiency, or a problem) less severe.

7. Ans. (a) - ‘Low fertility soil’ is the problem.

8. Ans. (d) - All the suggestions are mentioned in the paragraph.

9. Ans. (a) - Strangulating- strangle; throttle.

10. Ans. (c) - It is mentioned in the paragraph about the unseasonal rainfall.

 

Reading Comprehension - 3

1. Ans. (c) - to enable the people to live in a measure of physical and mental comfort.

2. Ans. (a) - It’s defined in the passage that “In a democracy, people’s will prevail, whereas in a colonial rule, ruler’s will prevail.”

3. Ans. (e) - It’s mentioned in the passage that they should elect desirable candidates.

4. Ans. (e) - because the electorate loses faith and trust in him and his ideologies.

5. Ans. (c) - Clearly, the voters are responsible for the kind of government they get.

6. Ans. (a) - It’s mentioned in the passage that Good governance is related to the welfare of the people.

7. Ans. (c) - It’s is mentioned in the passage that in Switzerland, there are law-abiding citizens.

8. Ans. (e) - None of the mentioned suggestion define the question.

9. Ans. (c) - The idea expressed in this paragraph is about ‘Political Science’.

10. Ans. (b) - CONCURRENCE- the state of agreeing with someone or something

   

RC-4

RC-5

RC-6

RC-7

1

4

1

4

1

5

1

c

2

3

2

1

2

4

2

d

3

1

3

3

3

4

3

d

4

3

4

5

4

5

4

c

5

2

5

1

5

2

5

a

6

1

6

5

6

3

6

d

7

3

7

4

7

2

7

c

8

2

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3

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2

8

a

9

4

9

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b

10

5

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3

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a

11

4

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11

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12

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12

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13

 

13

4

13

 

14

3

14

 

14

3

14

 

15

2

15

 

15

5

15

 

 

RC- 8

RC-9

RC-10

1

5

1

4

1

d

2

2

2

5

2

c

3

4

3

3

3

e

4

1

4

2

4

d

5

2

5

2

5

d

6

1

6

3

6

d

7

4

7

4

7

a

8

2

8

3

8

e

9

2

9

5

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d

10

1

10

2

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a

11

3

11

1

11

 

12

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13

4

13

5

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14

1

14

1

14

 

15

4

15

1

15

 

 

READING COMPREHENSION SET - 5

READING COMPREHENSION SET - 5

2399   16-Apr-2018, Mon

(RC-1) Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

Environmental protection and management is deservedly attracting a lot of attention these days. This is a desirable development in the face of the alarming rate of natural resource degradation which greatly hampers their optimal utilization. When waste waters emanating from municipal sewage, industrial effluent, agricultural and land runoffs, find their way either to ground water reservoirs or other surface water sources, the quality of water deteriorates, rendering it unfit for use. The natural balance is disturbed when concentrated discharges of waste water is not controlled. This because the cleansing forces of nature cannot do their job in proportion to the production of filthy matter.

According to the National Environment Engineering and Research Institute (NEERI), a staggering 70 percent of water available in the country is polluted. According to the Planning Commission, “From the Dal lake in the North to the Periyar and chaliyar rivers in the South, from Damodar and Hoogly in the East to the Thane creek in the West, the picture of water pollution is uniformly gloomy. Even our large perennial rivers, like the Ganga, are today heavily polluted.”

According to one study, all the 14 major rivers of India are highly polluted. Besides the Ganga, these rivers include the Yamuna, Narmada, Godavari, Krishna and Cauvery. These rivers carry 85 percent of the surface runoff and their drainage basins cover 73 percent of the country. The pollution of the much revered Ganga is due in particular to municipal sewage that accounts for 3/4th of its pollution load. Despite India having legislation on water pollution [The water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974] and various water pollution control boards, rivers have today become synonymous with drains and sewers.

Untreated community wastes discharged into water courses from human settlements account for four times as much waste water as industrial effluent. Out of India’s 3,119 towns and cities, only 217 have partial (209) or full (8) sewerage treatment facilities and cover less than of third of the urban population, Statistics from a report of the Central Board for Prevention and Control of Water Pollution reveal that 1,700 of 2,700 water using industries in India, are polluting the water around their factories. Only 160 industries have waste water treatment plants. One estimate suggests that the volume of waste water of industrial origin will be comparable to that of domestic sewage in India by 2000 A.D. Discharges from agricultural fields, which carry fertilizing ingredients of nitrogen, phosphorus and pesticides are expected to be three times as much as domestic sewage. By that date, thermal pollution generated by discharges from thermal power plants will be the largest in volume.

Toxic effluents deplete the level of oxygen in the rivers, endanger all aquatic life and render water absolutely unfit for human consumption, apart from affecting industrial production. Sometimes, these effects have been disastrous. A recent study reveals that the water of the Ganga, Yamuna, Kali and Hindon rivers have considerable concentration of heavy metals due to inflow of industrial wastes, which pose a serious health hazard to the millions living on their bands. Similarly, the Cauvery and Kapila rivers in Karnataka have been found to contain metal pollution which hreatens the health of people in riverine towns. The Periyar, the largest river of Kerala, receivers extremely toxic effluent that result in high incidence of skin problems and fish kills. The Godavari of Andhra Pradesh and the Damodar and Hoogly in West Bengal receive untreated industrial toxic wastes. A high level of pollution has been found in the Yamuna, while the Chambal of Rajasthan is considered the most polluted river in Rajasthan. Even in industrially backward Orissa, the Rushikula river is extremely polluted. The fate of the Krishna in Andhra Pradesh, the Tungabhadra in Karnataka, the Chaliyar in Kerala, the Gomati in U.P., the Narmada in M.P. and the Sone and the Subarnarekha rivers in Bihar is no different.

According to the W.H.O., eighty percent of diseases prevalent in India are water-borne; many of them assume epidemic proportions. The prevalence of these diseases heighten under conditions of drought. It is also estimated that India loses as many as 73 million man days every year due to water borne diseases, costing Rs. 600 crore by way of treatment expenditure and production losses. Management of water resources with respect to their quality also assumes greater importance especially when the country can no more afford to waste water.

The recent Clean-the-Ganga Project, with an action plan estimated to cost the exchequer Rs. 250 crore (which has been accorded top priority) is a trend setter in achieving this goal. The action plan evoked such great interest that offers of assistance have been received from France, U.K., U.S. and the Netherlands, as also from the World Bank. This is indeed laudable. Poland too has now joined this list.

The very fact that these countries have volunteered themselves to contribute their mite is a healthy reflection of global concern over growing environmental degradation and the readiness of the international community to participate in what is a truly formidable task. It may be recalled that the task of cleansing the Ganga along the Rishikesh-Hardwar stretch under the first phase of the Ganga Action Plan, has been completed and the results are reported to be encouraging.

The crisis of drinking water is deepening because water resources are drying up and the lowering of ground water through over pumping, this is compounded by the pollution of water resources. All these factors increase the magnitude of the problem. An assessment of the progress achieved by the end of March 1985, on completion of the first phase of the International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Dacade (1981–91), reveals that drinking water has been made available to 73 percent of the urban population and 56 percent to the rural population only. This means that nearly half the country’s rural population has to get drinking water facilities. This needs to be urgently geared up especially when considered against the Government’s professed objective of providing safe drinking water and sanitation to all by the end of the International Drinking Water Supply and Sanitation Decade, i.e., March 1991. The foremost action in this would be to clean up our water resources.

As per surveys conducted by the NEERI, per capita drinking water losses in different cities in the country range between 11,000 to 31,000 liters annually. This indicates a waste level of 20-35 percent of the total flow of water in the distribution system, primarily due to leaks in mains and household service pipes. Preventive maintenance programme would substantially reduce losses/wastages and would certainly go a long way in solving the problem.

According to the Union Ministry of Works and Housing, out of 2.31 lakh problem villages identified in 1980, 1.92 lakh (83 percent) villages have been provided with at least one source of drinking water as of March 1986. The balance (38,748) villages are expected to be covered during the seventh plan. A time-bound national policy on drinking water is being formulated by Government, wherein the task is proposed to be completed by the end of the seventh plan. An outlay of Rs. 6,522.47 crores has been allotted for the water supply and sanitation sector in the seventh plan period, against an outlay of Rs. 3,922.02 crores in the sixth plan. Of this, outlay for rural water supply sector is Rs. 3,454.47 crores. It is expected that this outlay would help to cover about 86.4 percent of the urban and 82.2 percent of the rural population with safe drinking water facilities by March 1991.Hygienic sanitation facilities would be provided to 44.7 percent and 1.8 percent of the urban and rural population respectively within, the same period.

 

1) The degradation of natural resources will necessarily lead to:

(a) poor economic utilization of resources.

(b) contamination of water from municipal sewage.

(c) water unfit for human consumption.

(d) deforestation

(e) None of the above.

 

2) According to NEERI:

a) the extent of water pollution in the Dal Lake is grim.

b) Seventy percent of total water available in the country is polluted.

c) only 217 out of 3119 towns and cities have sewage treatment facilities.

d) all the 14 major rivers of India are highly polluted.

e) None of the above.

 

3) Municipal sewage pollutants account for:

a) the lowest percentage of water pollution.

b) seventy-five percent of the Ganga’s water pollution load.

c) twice the volume of the waste water of industrial origin.

d) three times as much as the discharge from agricultural fields.

e) None of the above.

 

4) Which of the following statements is correct?

a) The river Periyar is in South India.

b) The river Periyar is the largest river of Kerala.

c) The river Gomti is also extremely polluted.

d) All of the above are correct.

e) None of the above is correct.

 

5) The cost of the Clean-the-Ganga Pollution Project Action Plan is likely to be sourced from:

a) the Indian Exchequer.

b) France, U.K., U.S and the Netherlands.

c) the World Bank, Poland, U.K.

d) the U.S., U.K., Netherlands, Poland, France, the World Bank and India.

e) None of the above.

 

6) Which of the following statements made by the WHO is correct?

a) Water-borne diseases account for eighty percent of all diseases prevalent in India.

b) Water-borne diseases in India create a loss of Rs. 600 crores every year.

c) only (a) is correct.

d) Both (a) and (b) are correct.

e) None of the above.

 

7) Considerable amounts of metal pollutants are found in the river(s):

a) Chambal of Rajasthan.

b) Rushikula in Orissa.

c) Damodar, Hoogly,, Krishna and Gomti.

d) Ganga, Yamuna, Kali, Hindon, Cauvery and Kapila.

e) None of the above.

 

8) The crisis of drinking water is caused chiefly by:

a) the greenhouse effect.

b) water pollution caused by industrial development.

c) drying up of water sources and over-pumping.

d) increasing urbanization.

e) None of the above.

 

9) The best remedy for water shortage lies in:

a) putting up more pumps in rural areas.

b) cleaning up polluted water.

c) reducing the waste level of 25-30 percent of the total flow of water.

d) constructing large-sized dams.

e) None of the above.

 

10) Out of the total outlay for water supply and sanitation in the seventh plan, rural water supply sector would receive.

a) about 53 percent.

b) over 80 percent.

c) between 65 and 80 percent.

d) equal to 44.7 percent.

e) None of the above.

 

 

(RC- 2) Directions (1-6): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

In 1955 Maurice Duverger published The Political Role of Women, the first behavioralist, multinational comparison of women’s electoral participation ever to use election data and survey data together. His study analyzed women’s patterns of voting, political candidacy, and political activism in four European countries during the first half of the twentieth century. Duverger’s research findings were that women voted somewhat less frequently than men (the difference narrowing the longer women had the vote) and were slightly more conservative.

Duverger’s work set an early standard for the sensitive analysis of women’s electoral activities. Moreover, to Duverger’s credit, he placed his findings in the context of many of the historical processes that had shaped these activities. However, since these contexts have changed over time, Duverger’s approach has proved more durable than his actual findings. In addition, Duverger’s discussion of his findings was hampered by his failure to consider certain specific factors important to women’s electoral participation at the time he collected his data: the influence of political regimes, the effects of economic factors, and the ramifications of political and social relations between women and men. Given this failure, Duverger’s study foreshadowed the enduring limitations of the behavioralist approach to the multinational study of women’s political participation.

 

1) The primary purpose of the passage is to

(a) evaluate a research study

(b) summarize the history of a research area

(c) report new research findings

(d) reinterpret old research findings

(e) reconcile conflicting research findings

 

2) According to the passage, Duverger’s study was unique in 1955 in that it

a) included both election data and survey data

b) gathered data from sources never before used in political studies

c) included an analysis of historical processes

d) examined the influence on the voting behavior of the relationships between women and men

e) analyzed not only voting and political candidacy but also other political activities

 

3) Which of the following characteristics of a country is most clearly an example of a factor that Duverger, as described in the passage, failed to consider in his study?

(a) A large population

(b) A predominantly Protestant population

(c) A predominantly urban population

(d) A one-party government

(e) Location in the heart of Europe

 

4) The author implies that Duverger’s actual findings are

a) limited because they focus on only four countries

b) inaccurate in their description of the four countries in the early 1950s

c) out-of-date in that they are inapplicable in the four countries today

d) flawed because they are based on unsound data

e) biased by Duverger’s political beliefs

 

5) The passage implies that, in comparing four European countries, Duverger found that the voting rates of women and men were most different in the country in which women

a) were most politically active

b) ran for office most often

c) held the most conservative political views

d) had the most egalitarian relations with men

e) had possessed the right to vote for the shortest time

 

6) The author implies that some behavioralist research involving the multinational study of women’s political participation that followed Duverger’s study did which of the following?

a) Ignored Duverger’s approach

b) Suffered from faults similar to those in Duverger’s study

c) Focused on political activism

d) Focused on the influences of political regimes

e) Focused on the political and social relations between women and men

 

 

(RC-3) Directions (1-7): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems were formed more than two billion years ago from magmatic fluids that originated from molten granite-like bodies deep beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is contrary to the widely held view that the systems were deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks.

The recently developed theory has considerable practical importance. Most of the gold deposits discovered during the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth’s surface and were found because they had shed trails of alluvial gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods. Although these same methods still lead to an occasional discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone undetected because they are buried and have no surface expression.

The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the position of buried minerals. Methods widely used today include analysis of aerial images that yield a broad geological overview; geophysical techniques that provide data on the magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often envelop mineralization. However, none of these high-technology methods are of any value if the sites to which they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize the chances of discovery the explorer must, therefore, pay particular attention to selecting the ground formations most likely to be mineralized. Such ground selection relies to varying degrees on conceptual models, which take into account theoretical studies of relevant factors.

These models are constructed primarily from empirical observations of known mineral deposits and from theories of ore-forming processes.

The explorer uses the models to identify those geological features that are critical to the formation of the mineralization being modeled and then tries to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of the critical features as possible.

 

1) The author is primarily concerned with

a) advocating a return to an older methodology

b) explaining the importance of a recent theory

c) enumerating differences between two widely used methods

d) describing events leading to a discovery

e) challenging the assumptions on which a theory is based

 

2) According to the passage, the widely held view of Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that such systems

(a) were formed from metamorphic fluids

(b) originated in molten granite-like bodies

(c) were formed from alluvial deposits

(d) generally, have surface expression

(e) are not discoverable through chemical tests

 

3) The passage implies that which of the following steps would be the first performed by explorers who wish to maximize their chances of discovering gold?

a) Surveying several sites are known to have been formed more than two billion years ago

b) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been formed from metamorphic fluid

c) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a site for further exploration

d) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a broad area

e) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold has previously been found

 

4) Which of the following statements about discoveries of gold deposits is supported by information in the passage?

a) The number of gold discoveries made annually has increased between the time of the original gold rushes and the present.

b) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the result of exploration techniques designed to locate buried mineralization.

c) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits will ever yield as much as did those deposits discovered during the original gold rushes.

d) Modern explorers are divided on the question of the utility of simple prospecting methods as a source of new discoveries of gold deposits.

e) Models based on the theory that gold originated from magmatic fluids have already led to new discoveries of gold deposits.

 

5) It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is easiest to detect?

a) gold-quartz vein system originating in magmatic fluids

b) A gold-quartz vein system originating in metamorphic fluids

c) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite

d) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold

e) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos

 

6) The theory mentioned in lines 1-3 relates to the conceptual models discussed in the passage in which of the following ways?

a) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming processes, and, hence, can support conceptual models that have great practical significance.

b) It suggests that certain geological formations, long believed to be mineralized, are in fact mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual models.

c) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems to warrant the formulation of conceptual models.

d) It corrects existing theories about the chemical halos of gold deposits and thus provides a basis for correcting current conceptual models.

e) It suggests that simple prospecting methods still have a higher success rate in the discovery of gold deposits than do more modern methods.

 

7) According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold that is widely used today are based on which of the following facts?

a) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are still molten.

b) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are exposed at the surface.

c) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are buried and have no surface expression.

d) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration since the other types of gold deposits are found in regions difficult to reach.

e) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits, are unlikely to yield concentrated quantities of gold.

 

Directions (8-9): Choose the option which is the antonym of the word mentioned in the question.

 

8) Furtive

a) clandestine

b) fugitive

c) expatriate

d) open

e) hidden

 

9) Fleeting

a) vanishing

b) passing

c) affable

d) permanent

e) mesmerizing

 

 

(RC-4) Directions (1-9): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the five given alternatives.

It was once believed that the brain was independent of metabolic processes occurring elsewhere in the body. In recent studies, however, we have discovered that the production and release in brain neurons of the neurotransmitter serotonin (neurotransmitters are compounds that neurons use to transmit signals to other cells) depend directly on the food that the body processes.

Our first studies sought to determine whether the increase in serotonin observed in rats given a large injection of the amino acid tryptophan might also occur after rats ate meals that change tryptophan levels in the blood. We found that immediately after the rats began to eat, parallel elevations occurred in blood tryptophan, brain tryptophan, and brain serotonin levels. These findings suggested that the production and release of serotonin in brain neurons were normally coupled with blood-tryptophan increases. In later studies, we found that injecting insulin into a rat’s bloodstream also caused parallel elevations in blood and brain tryptophan levels and in serotonin levels. We then decided to see whether the secretion of the animal’s own insulin similarly affected serotonin production. We gave the rats a carbohydrate-containing meal that we knew would elicit insulin secretion. As we had hypothesized, the blood tryptophan level and the concentrations of tryptophan and of serotonin in the brain increased after the meal.

Surprisingly, however, when we added a large amount of protein to the meal, brain tryptophan, and serotonin levels fell. Since protein contains tryptophan, why should it depress brain tryptophan levels? The answer lies in the mechanism that provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells. This same mechanism also provides the brain cells with other amino acids found in protein, such as tyrosine and leucine. The consumption of protein increases the blood concentration of the other amino acids much more, proportionately, than it does that of tryptophan. The more protein is in a meal, the lower is the ratio of the resulting blood-tryptophan concentration to the concentration of competing for amino acids, and the more slowly is tryptophan provided to the brain. Thus the more protein in a meal, the less serotonin subsequently produced and released.

 

1. Which of the following titles best summarizes the contents of the passage?

(a) Neurotransmitters: Their Crucial Function in Cellular Communication

(b) Diet and Survival: An Old Relationship Reexamined

(c) The Blood Supply and the Brain: A Reciprocal Dependence

(d) Amino Acids and Neurotransmitters: The Connection between Serotonin Levels and Tyrosine

(e) The Effects of Food Intake on the Production and Release of Serotonin: Some Recent Findings

 

2. According to the passage, the speed with which tryptophan is provided to the brain cells of a rat varies with the

(a) the amount of protein presents in a meal

(b) the concentration of serotonin in the brain before a meal

(c) the concentration of leucine in the blood rather than with the concentration of tyrosine in the blood after a meal

(d) the concentration of tryptophan in the brain before a meal

(e) number of serotonin-containing neurons

 

3. According to the passage, when the authors began their first studies, they were aware that

(a) they would eventually need to design experiments that involved feeding rats high concentrations of protein

(b) tryptophan levels in the blood were difficult to monitor with accuracy

(c) serotonin levels increased after rats were fed meals rich in tryptophan

(d) there were many neurotransmitters whose production was dependent on metabolic processes elsewhere in the body

(e) serotonin levels increased after rats were injected with a large amount of tryptophan

 

4. According to the passage, one reason that the authors gave rats carbohydrates was to

(a) depress the rats’ tryptophan levels

(b) prevent the rats from contracting diseases

(c) cause the rats to produce insulin

(d) demonstrate that insulin is the most important substance secreted by the body

(e) compare the effect of carbohydrates with the effect of proteins

 

5. According to the passage, the more protein a rat consumes, the lower will be the

(a) the ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan concentration to the amount of serotonin produced and released in the rat’s brain

(b) the ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan concentration to the concentration in its blood of the other amino acids contained in the protein

(c) the ratio of the rat’s blood-tyrosine concentration to its blood-leucine concentration

(d) number of neurotransmitters of any kind that the rat will produce and release

(e) number of amino acids the rat’s blood will contain

 

6. The authors’ discussion of the “mechanism that provides blood tryptophan to the brain cells” is meant to

(a) stimulate further research studies

(b) summarize an area of scientific investigation

(c) help explain why a particular research finding was obtained

(d) provide supporting evidence for a controversial scientific theory

(e) refute the conclusions of a previously mentioned research study

 

7. According to the passage, an injection of insulin was most similar in its effect on rats to an injection of

(a) tyrosine

(b) leucine

(c) blood

(d) tryptophan

(e) protein

 

8. It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following would be LEAST likely to be a potential source of aid to a patient who was not adequately producing and releasing serotonin?

(a) Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein

(b) Meals consisting almost exclusively of carbohydrates

(c) Meals that would elicit insulin secretion

(d) Meals that had very low concentrations of tyrosine

(e) Meals that had very low concentrations of leucine

 

9. It can be inferred from the passage that the authors initially held which of the following hypotheses about what would happen when they fed large amounts of protein to rats?

(a) The rats’ brain serotonin levels would not decrease.

(b) The rats’ brain tryptophan levels would decrease.

(c) The rats’ tyrosine levels would increase less quickly than would their leucine levels.

(d) The rats would produce more insulin.

(e) The rats would produce neurotransmitters other than serotonin.

 

Directions (10-15): Choose the option which is the antonym of the word mentioned in the question.

10. Fledgling

(a) lobbyist

(b) sophomoric

(c) veteran

(d) sapling

(e) green horn

 

11. Apathy

(a) nonchalance

(b) rebuttal

(c) antipathy

(d) empathy

(e) fortune

 

12. Bucolic

(a) penalize

(b) censure

(c) punish

(d) civic

(e) rustic

 

13. Veneration

(a) dissuasion

(b) ignorance

(c) passivity

(d) contempt

(e) honour

 

14. Vitriolic

(a) humble

(b) retiring

(c) pleasant

(d) pure

(e) bitter

 

15. Soporific

(a) mature

(b) impervious

(c) exciting

(d) steep

(e) dull

 

(RC-5) Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and choose the best answer to each question out of the four given alternatives.

Just as there are basic laws and principles that control your physical world, there are basic laws and principles that control your mental world as well. Before you can hope to operate your human success system properly, you need to know the basic laws that determine your behavior and affect your very being.

In this regard, you have no choice. You cannot decide to bypass these laws in an attempt to negate their application. They are present in all mental working and will always operate successfully to bring about the results you keep telling your mind you want.

The human mind is very much like a sophisticated electronic computer. When you acquire any new piece of advanced equipment, you normally take some time to carefully read the manual and basic operating instructions before turning it on to make it work. Operating instructions are important. They tell you how to get maximum performance out of the device, taking into account the specific tasks it was designed to perform. It should be the same with operating your own miraculous built-in machine.

You were born as the most advanced living organism in the world, yet you lack the precise knowledge to get the most out of your internal success system. Of course, your automatic goal-stirring mechanism is always successful. But it is probably more successful at getting you what you don’t want in life rather than what you do want. Understanding the mental laws will help you get what you do want, more often.

 

1. We need to know the basic laws that govern our behavior patterns in order to

(a) be efficient in all we undertake

(b) manage our human success system properly

(c) know right from wrong

(d) emerge triumphant in all situations

(e) they familiarize us with it

 

2. These basic laws influence all mental workings and always operate successfully to achieve

(a) what we cherish most

(b) what we attempt to do

(c) what we tell our minds we want

(d) what we want in our subconscious

(e) none of the above

 

3. For all machines, operating instructions are important because

(a) they teach us the basics about the machine

(b) they tell us the machine’s value

(c) they familiarize us with it

(d) they teach us how to use the machine in a manner as to get the best possible result out of it.

(e) none of the above

 

4. According to the passage, the most advanced living organism in the world is

(a) an electronic computer

(b) only the reader of the passage

(c) the writer himself

(d) mankind

(e) none of the above

 

5. The automatic goal stirring mechanism of our body is successful mostly

(a) in keeping us happy

(b) in achieving what we don’t want in life

(c) in keeping alive the competitive spirit in us

(d) in always encouraging us

(e) none of the above

 

6. In order to get what we do want, it is helpful to

(a) discipline ourselves

(b) understand our mental laws

(c) cultivate good habits

(d) study more

(e) none of the above

 

7. The subject under discussion in the passage is

(a) an advanced computer

(b) all complicated machines

(c) human mind

(d) human spirit

(e) none of the above

 

8. The objective of the passage is to

(a) help the reader in being successful

(b) entertain the reader

(c) familiarize the reader with computers

(d) discuss all complicated machines

(e) cultivate good habits

 

9. The word ‘negate’ in the passage means

(a) refuse to accept

(b) deny (the existence of)

(c) hamper

(d) obviate

(e) excruciate

 

10. The phrase ‘miraculous built-in machine’ refers to

(a) the human mind

(b) the human limbs

(c) one’s own computer

(d) the modern machines

(e) obsolete machine

 

Directions (11-15): In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.

11. Celestial

(a) heavenly

(b) earthly

(c) imaginary

(d) vigorous

(e) acknowledge

 

12. Duplicity

(a) deceit

(b) strength

(c) awkwardness

(d)straightforwardness

(e) discouraged

 

13. Confess

(a) grant

(b) concede

(c) conceal

(d) acknowledge

(e) vigorous

 

14. Extant

(a) existing

(b) defunct

(c) employed

(d) surviving

(e) heavenly

 

15. Nauseated

(a) disturbed

(b) disgusted

(c) enchanted

(d) discouraged

(e) existing

 

 

(RC-6) Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the following questions given below it.

Today, with a Noble prize to its credit, Grameen is one of the largest microfinance organisations in the world. It started out lending small sums to poor entrepreneurs in Bangladesh to help them grow from a subsistence living to a livelihood. The great discovery its founders made was that even with few assets, these entrepreneurs repaid on time. Grameen and microfinance have since become financial staples of the developing world. Grameen’s approach, unlike other microfinanciers, uses the group-lending model. Costs are kept down by having borrowers vet one another, typing together their financial fates and eliminating expensive loan officers entirely. The ultimate promise of Grameen is to use business lending as a way for people to lift themselves out of poverty.

Recently Grameen has taken on a different challenge – by setting up operations in the US. Money may be tight in the waning recession, but it is still a nation of 1,00,000 bank branches. Globally, the working microfinance equation consists of borrowing funds cheaply and keeping loan defaults and overhead expenses sufficiently low. Microlenders, including Grameen, do this by charging colossal interest rates – as high as 60% or 70% - Which is necessary to compensate for the risk and attract bank funding. But loans at rates much above the standard 15% would most likely be attacked as usurious in America.

So, the question is whether there is a role for a Third World lender in the world’s largest economy. Grameen America believes that in a few years it will be successful and turn a profit, thanks to 9 million US households untouched by mainstream banks and 21 million using the likes of payday loans and pawn ships for financing. But enticing the unbanked won’t be easy. After all, profit has long eluded US microfinanciers and if it is not lucrative, it is not microlending, but charity. When Grameen first went to the US, in the late 1980s, it tripped up. Under Grameen’s tutelage, banks started microloans to entrepreneurs with a shocking 30% loss. But Grameen America says that this time results will be different because Grameen employees themselves will be making the loans, not training an American bank to do it. More often than not, the borrowers, Grameen finds, in the US already have jobs (as factory workers for example) or side businesses – selling toys, cleaning houses etc. The loans from Grame en, by and large, provides the steadier source of funding, but they don't create businesses out of anything. But money isn’t everything. More importantly for many entrepreneurs, group members are tremendous sources of support to one another. So even if studies are yet to determine if Grameen is a clear-cut pathway out of poverty, it still achieves something useful.

 

1. What has adversely affected the success of microfinance institutions in the US?

(a) The focus of these institutions is on making a profit at any cost instead of being charitable to the needy.

(b) American banks engaged in microlending were the most severely hit during the recession.

(c) A widespread perception among bankers that these institutions are better suited to developing countries.

(d) Their failure to attract those outside the formal banking system as customers

(e) Americans are too proud to accept aid from Third World countries.

 

2. Why has Grameen made a second attempt to launch itself in the US?

(a) The willingness of US banks to provide the necessary staff and funds to facilitate the spread of microfinance

(b) The rates of interest on loans in the US are exorbitant, making it easier to recover capital.

(c) The realization that a large percentage of the American population not reached by mainstream banks can be trapped

(d) Recognition of the fact that disbursing credit in developing countries during the recession is too risky.

(e) None of these

 

3. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) Microfinance has been successful only in Asian countries.

(b) Microfinance makes individual borrowers dependent rather than independent.

(c) America has the largest number of banks in the world.

(d) There is scope for microfinance institutions to be profitable in developed countries.

(e) There are no informal sources of credit in developed countries.

 

4. According to the author, what has enhanced the likelihood of success for Grameen America at present?

(a) Its success in Bangladesh and other developing countries.

(b) The absence of other microfinance institutions for competition.

(c) The fact that America is currently in the midst of a recession.

(d) It provides loans at nominal rates of interest, ie below 15 per cent.

(e) None of these

 

5. Which of the following can be said about Grameen?

(A)Its success in developing countries will ensure its success in developed countries.

(B)It ensures that the poor in developing countries enjoy a subsistence standard of living.

(C)It has demonstrated that the poor are far more likely to repay loans that the affluent.

(a) None

(b) Only A

(c) Only A and C

(d) Only B

(e) Only C

 

6. What is the central theme of the passage?

(a) The contention that Grameen is doomed to fail in developed countries.

(b) A comprehensive evaluation of the current status of the American economy.

(c) A discussion about the prospects of Grameen and microfinance in the US.

(d) The role of banks in facilitating microlending efforts in developed nations.

(e) Microfinance efforts are useful in developing countries but are futile in developed ones.

 

7. Why was Grameen America’s initial US initiative a flop?

(A) Lack of proper training to Grameen America personnel.

(B) Grameen’s refusal to adapt their system to meet the needs of the American poor.

(C) It ended up giving loans at half their customary rates of interest.

(a) None

(b) Only A

(c) Only A and C

(d) Only B

(e) Only C

 

8. Which of the following is a benefit of the Grameen system of microfinance?

(a) If a single member is unable to repay a loan, other group members will repay it.

(b) Dispensing with the expense of technology networks to monitor advances.

(c) It utilizes the vast bank network already existing in a country.

(d) Group members can sanction loans and verify if borrowers have sufficient collateral.

(e) Backing that borrows receive from other group members.

 

9. Which of the following is most similar in meaning to the word “ELUDED” as used in the passage?

(a) Avoided

(b) Duped

(c) Abandoned

(d) Intangible

(e) Betrayed

 

10. Which of the following is most opposite in meaning to the word “COLOSSAL” as used in the passage?

(a) Short

(b) Lavish

(c) Minority

(d) Frugal

(e) Insignificant

 

Directions (11-15): Choose the option which is the antonym of the word mentioned in the question.

11. Ally

(a) adversary

(b) partner

(c) fence-sitter

(d) almighty

(e) relax

 

12. Oblivious

(a) apparent

(b) unperturbed

(c) nonchalant

(d) alert

(e) absent-minded

 

13. Affirmative

(a) obliging

(b) uncivilized

(c) platonic

(d) negative

(e) approving

 

14. Ambiguous

(a) unequivocal

(b) perplexing

(c) befuddled

(d) murky

(e) uncertain

 

15. Abhorrence

(a) disgust

(b) admiration

(c) animus

(d) pathos

(e) loathsome

 

(RC-7) Directions (Q. 1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it

As far as we know, all animals dream; and humans probably started to dream even before they were sufficiently intelligent to think about the process. It has been suggested that some of the earliest prehistoric cave paintings are records of dreams. Freud set out the theory that, although they may be prompted by external stimuli, wish-fulfillment was the basis of most dreams. According to him, our dreams reflected our deepest desires, rooted in our infancy, and always held a serious meaning. He stressed the erotic content of dreams. Carl Gustav Jung collaborated with Freud for some years, but disagreed with him on this very point: hidden sexual problems were not, Jung argued at the root of most dreams. Freud believed that dreams were the result of concealed desires and, continued, on the whole, to conceal them; Jung, on the other hand, felt that dreams revealed our deepest wishes and longings enabling us to realize our unconscious ambitions and helping us to fulfil them. Jung suggested that dreams are, in fact, important messages from ourselves to ourselves, and messages that we ignore to our loss. Most modern psychologists tend to lean towards Jung rather than Freud. Freud would have denied that someone could be taught to interpret their own dreams; whereas Jung believed that although it was a difficult task it could and should be done for, dreams were “meant” to be understood. The idea of losing consciousness, of ceasing to be ourselves, and of relinquishing all control over our thoughts and movements, is dreadful to us; and yet it happens every night when we sleep, For centuries, people thought of sleep as a period when humans rested their bodies and their minds. Even in the early part of the last century, It was believed that during the day, blood rose to the brain and caused congestion there. During sleep, the blood drained back into the rest of the body (and therefore it was best to sleep without a pillow so that the blood could flow more easily from the brain). Early this century, scientists suggested that certain chemicals, such as lactic acid, carbon dioxide and cholesterol, collected in the brain during waking hours and were then depleted during sleep. The question remains, what is the purpose of sleep? No cases have ever been recorded in which physical illness has resulted from lack of sleep, although the brain probably does need sleep, since measurements of brain activity have shown some chemical changes during sleep deprivation.

The modern understating of the nature of sleep began just over 40 years ago. In 1952, a researcher noticed that at certain times during a period of sleep the eyes of the subjects could be seen stirring beneath their closed lids – as though they were watching moving figures. These motions were called “rapid eye movements” and the phases of sleep were called REM periods. Three years later, it was found that during REM sleep, the flow of blood to the brain increased, as did the brain’s temperature, particular brain wave patterns showed up on an electroencephalograph (EEG). Irregularities in breathing and heartbeat were noted during REM sleep, and a reduction in electrical activity in certain muscles. It was also discovered that if a person was woken up during REM sleep, they could usually remember vivid dreams; while only about six per cent of people woken during NREM (non-rapid eye movement) sleep claimed to have been dreaming. It seemed to be the case that only during NREM sleep were humans really “unconscious”, and apparently indulging in complete rest. Although about half of the people awakened during this period believed they had been dreaming, they thought that their dreams were more like daydreams – seeming less surreal than “real” dreams. These discoveries were so interesting that they led to an intense period of the study of sleep patterns, and most of our knowledge about the nature of sleep emerged from studies made over the next 20 years.

When we fall asleep we enter a cycle of sleep – a pattern that is usually repeated several times during the night. Scientists identify four stages of sleep – the first stage is simply a transition from wakefulness to real sleep; while stage two may be described as “normal” sleep. During stage three, there is another transition, or sinking into a deeper sleep – that of stage four. During sleep, what is happening in the brain can be measured by the use an EEG. Electrodes placed on the scalp pick up “brain waves” of about one – millionth of a volt in strength, which are amplified and traced on paper or recorded on tape, where changes in frequency (the number of waves taking place within one second) can be seen. Four types of EEG have been particularly studied: Beta waves are fast waves that show when the brain is animated or anxious. Alpha waves which show during periods of meditation, when the brain is wakeful but relaxed. Theta waves occurring during drowsiness or light sleep; and Delta waves slow waves that are seen during times of deep sleep. The whole cycle lasts around ten minutes of REM sleep, when dreams occur, before “climbing” back through three layers of NREM sleep. The whole cycle lasts around 80 or 90 minutes. During perhaps four cycles repeated throughout a single night’s sleep, we spend around six hours in NREM sleep, and the remaining two in REM “dream-time”. Just under half of us wake only from NREM sleep, and these include those people “who claim that they never dream.” It has been suggested by some psychologists that these people unconsciously wake themselves at a time when they are not dreaming because they want to repress what their dreams are telling them.

 

1. If you get up actually remembering a dream, then you would most probably have got up from

(a) REM sleep

(b) A stage where your brain waves are of theta type.

(c) NREM stage.

(d) Surreal dreams.

(e) None of these

 

2. The purpose of sleep as inferred from the passage is to

(a) Decipher one’s innate feeling.

(b) Avoid physical illness

(c) Rest one’s brain as sleep deprivation may cause certain chemical reactions.

(d) Decide one’s unfulfilled wishes.

(e) None of these

 

3. Freud believed in one of the following very strongly.

(a) One’s dreams are the manifestations of one’s hidden sexual problems.

(b) Dreams and related problems should be revealed to solve them.

(c) We need to understand our dreams to help ourselves.

(d) If is easy to teach people to interpret their own dreams.

(e) None of these

 

4. Regarding our sleep cycles.

(a) About four cycles are repeated throughout a single night’s sleep

(b) We spend around one fourth of our sleeping duration dreaming.

(c) During most of our single night’s sleep, we are in deep sleep.

(d) All the above statements hold good.

(e) None of these

 

5. If you are stuck in a lecture which is uninteresting in your view, your brain, most probably, sends out

(a) Beta waves.

(b) Alpha waves.

(c) Delta waves.

(d) Theta waves.

(e) None of these

 

6. Which of the following can be attributed to freudian theory of dreams?

(a) They are triggered by external stimuli.

(b) One’s desires start-taking shape during infancy itself.

(c) They are abstract expressions of our repressed, deepest desires.

(d) All of the above were suggested by Freud.

(e) None of these

 

7. “……. Yet it happens every night” the world ‘it’ implies

(a) Sleep.

(b) dreaming.

(c) Dreading.

(d) Being not in control of one’s movements or thoughts.

(e) None of these

 

8. Jung and Freud differed on which of the following issues?

(a) The root of most dreams.

(b) The extent to which a person can be taught to understand his dreams.

(c) The benefits derived out of decoding one’s dreams.

(d) All of the above

(e) None of these

 

9. As suggested by a few psychologists, people who say that they never dream are

(a) obviously bluffing.

(b) In fact waking themselves up during REM sleep.

(c) Not trying to listen to what their dreams are saying.

(d) Depriving themselves of a chance of attaining their unrealized desires.

(e) None of these

 

10. What happens to the level of cholesterol in the brain during sleep?

(a) It goes up

(b) It goes down.

(c) It remains constant.

(d) It fluctuates

(e) None of these

 

(RC-8) Directions (1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain words have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

For years now, George W. Bush has told Americans that he would increase the number of troops in Iraq only if, the commanders on the ground asked him to do so. It was not a throw away live. Bush said it from the very first days of the war, when he and pentagon boss Donald Rumsfeld were criticized for going to war with too few troops. He said it right up until last summer, stressing at a news conference in Chicago that Iraq commander General George Casey will make the decisions as to how many troops we have there. Seasoned military people suspected that the line was a dodge that the civilians who ran the pentagon were testing their personal theory that war can be fought on the cheap and the brass simply knew better than to ask for more in any case the president repeated the mantra to dismiss any suggestion that the war was going badly. Who, after all, knew better than the generals on the ground? Now as the war nears the end of its fourth year and the number of Americans killed has surpassed 3,000 Bush has dropped the generals know best line sometime next week the president is expected to propose a surge in the number of 45 forces in Iraq for a period of up to two years. A senior official said reinforcements numbering about 20,000 troops and may be more could be in place within months; the surge would be achieved by extending the stay of some forces already in Iraq and accelerating the deployment of others.

The irony is that while the generals would have liked more troops in the past, they are cool to the idea of spending more now that’s in past because the politicians and commanders had trouble agreeing on what the goal of a surge would further erode the readiness of the US’s already stressed ground forces and even those who back a surge are under no illusions about what it would mean to the casualty rate. If you put more American troops on the front line said a white house official, you’re going to have more casualties. Coming from Bush, a man known for bold strokes the surge is a strange half-measure-too large for the political climate at house too small to crush the insurgency in Iraq and surely three years too late Bush has waved off a bipartisan rescue mission out of pride stubbornness or ideology or same combination of the three, Rather than reversing course, as all the wise elders of the Iraq study group advised, the commander in chief is betting that more troops will lead the way to what one white house official calls “victory.”

 

1. Bush and Rumsfeld had received brick bats for-

(a) waging a war against Iraq

(b) testing their personal theories

(c) their assertion in the news conference in Chicago

(d) turning down the demands of general George Casey

(e) None of these

 

2. George Bush gave an impression to his subjects that his army commanders were given the autonomy to decide-

(a) when to start or stop the war in Iraq

(b) the reasonable requirement of American troops to fight the war in Iraq

(c) how many troops should Iraq use to fight against the Americans

(d) the pentagon policies regarding war in Iraq

(e) None of these

 

3. From the content of the passage, which of the following can be definitely inferred?

(A) The US troops in Iraq are happy with their victory

(B) The troops already fighting the war in Iraq are sufficient enough to combat the situation effectively

(C) The Generals who were earlier not in favor of increasing troops in Iraq are now insisting on surge.

(a) A and B only

(b) B and C only

(c) A and C only

(d) None

(e) All of three

 

4. Which of the following best describes Bush’s persistent reaction to the observations that the Iraq war strategy was not effective due to inadequate American forces?

(a) Such strategies are better left to army commanders to decide on the ground.

(b) Civilians are the best assessors of such strategies

(c) War can be fought on the cheap

(d) The brass knew better of war but not of politics.

(e) None of these

 

5. The author of the passage appears to be-

(a) in favor of enhancement of American troops in Iraq

(b) critical about Bush’s strategy of handling situation in Iraq

(c) an impartial assessor of the US strategy related to the situation in Iraq.

(d) an indifferent on looker of what is happening in Iraq

(e) inclined to the idea of with drawl of American troops to save casualty.

 

6. Which of the following is the assessment of the commander-in-chief of US forced in Iraq on the present situation there?

(a) America’s desired goal will be achieved if more troops are deployed in Iraq.

(b) Withdrawal of troops from Iraq is essential to raise the moral of US army.

(c) Further strengthening of the US army in Iraq will be suicidal as it means more destruction of US forces.

(d) Pentagon’s civilians should not have been allowed to interfere with the army commanders’ strategies.

(e) None of these

 

7. Which of the following strategies would achieve the desired increase in American forces in Iraq?

(A) Continuation of stay of troops for a further period.

(B) Expeditious deployment of additional troops.

(C) Seeking additional input from politicians and commanders of neighboring friendly countries.

(a) A and C only

(b) C only

(c) B only

(d) A and B only

(e) None of these

 

8. Why do the army commanders disfavor enhancement of troops now?

(A) More force means more casualties.

(B) Difference of opinion between politicians and commanders about the aim of the troop enhancement

(C) Probable adverse psychological impact on ground forces.

(a) Only A and B

(b) Only B and C

(c) All the three

(d) Only A and C

(e) None of these

 

9. Which of the following made Bush change his thinking about the requirement of forces in Iraq?

(A) The unreasonably long period for which the war continued

(B) The large number of American soldiers killed in the war

(C) Demand from the army commanders

(a) Only A and C

(b) Only A and B

(c) Only B and C

(d) All three

(e) Only C

 

Directions (10-12): Which of the following is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word given in bold as used in the passage?

10. Cool

(a) Warm

(b) Enthusiastic

(c) Unwelcome

(d) Intemperate

(e) Indifferent

 

11. Surge

(a) Enhancement

(b) Trivializing

(c) Reduction

(d) Strengthening

(e) Up gradation

 

12. Stubbornness

(a) Uncertainty

(b) Weakness

(c) Acceptability

(d) Infirmity

(e) Flexibility

 

Directions (13-15): Which of the following is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word given in bold as used in passage?

13. Illusion

(a) Reality

(b) Reflection

(c) Fantastic

(d) Delusion

(e) Deviation

 

14. Insurgency

(a) Rebellion

(b) Ingredient

(c) Combat

(d) Debacle

(e) Violation

 

15. Irony

(a) Leveling

(b) Precaution

(c) Controversy

(d) Mockery

(e) Perception

 

 

(RC- 9) Directions(1-15): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.

                     In February 2010 the Medical Council of India announced a major change in the regulation governing the establishment of medical colleges. With this change, corporate entities were permitted to open medical colleges. The new regulation also carried the following warning: “permission shall be withdrawn if the colleges resort to commercialization”. Since the regulation does not elaborate on what constitutes “resorting to commercialization”, this will presumably be a matter left to the discretion of the Government. A basic requirement for a new medical college is a pre-existing hospital that will serve as a teaching hospital. Corporate entities have hospitals in the major metros and that is where they will have to locate medical colleges. The earlier mandated land requirement for a medical college campus, a minimum of 25 acres of contiguous land, cannot be fulfilled in the metros. Not surprisingly, yet another tweak has been made in the regulation, prescribing 10 acres as the new minimum campus size for 9 cities including the main metros. With this, the stage is set for corporate entities to enter the medical education market. Until now, medical education in India has been projected as a not-for profit activity to be organised for the public good. While private bodies can run medical colleges, these can only be societies or trusts, legally non-profit organizations. In opening the door to corporate colleges, thus, a major policy change has been effected without changing the law or even a discussion in Parliament, but by simply getting a compliant MCI to change the regulation on establishment of medical colleges. This and another changes have been justified in the name of addressing the shortage of doctors. At the same time, over 50 existing medical colleges, including 15 run by the government, have been prohibited from admitting students in 2010 for having failed to meet the basic standards prescribed. Ninety per cent of these colleges have come up in the last 5 years. Particularly shocking is the phenomenon of government colleges falling short of standards approved by the Government. Why are state government institutions not able to meet the requirements that have been approved by the central government? A severe problem faced by government-run institutions is attracting and retaining teaching faculty, and this is likely to be among the major reasons for these colleges failing to satisfy the MCI norms. The crisis building up on the faculty front has been flagged by various commissions looking into problems of medical education over the years. An indicator of the crisis is the attempt to conjure up faculty when MCI carries out inspections of new colleges, one of its regulatory functions. Judging by news reports, the practice of presenting fake faculty – students or private medical practitioners hired for the day – during MCI inspections in private colleges is common. What is interesting is that even government colleges are adopting unscrupulous methods. Another indicator is the extraordinary scheme, verging on the ridiculous that is being put in place by the MCI to make inspections ‘foolproof’. Faculty in all medical colleges are to be issued an RFID-based smart card by th MCI with a unique Faculty Number. The card, it is argued, will eliminate the possibility of a teacher being shown on the faculty of more than one college and establish if the qualifications of a teacher are genuine. In the future, it is projected that biometric RFID readers will be installed in the colleges that will enable a Faculty Identification, Tracking and Monitoring System to monitor faculty from within the college and even remotely from MCI headquarters. The picture above does not even start to reveal the true and pathetic situation of medical care especially in rural India. Only a fraction of the doctors and nursing professionals serve rural areas where 70 per cent of our population lives. The Health Ministry, with the help of the MCI, has been active in proposing yet another ‘innovative’ solution to the problem of lack of doctors in the rural areas. The proposal is for a three-and-a-half-year course to obtain the degree of Bachelor of Rural Medicine and Surgery (BRMS). Only rural candidates would be able to join this course. The study and training would happen at two different levels – Community Health Centers for 18 months, and sub-divisional hospitals for a further period of 2 years – and be conducted by retired professors. After completion of training, they would only be able to serve in their own state in district hospitals, community health centres, and primary health centres. The BRMS proposal has invited sharp criticism from some doctors’ organizations on the grounds that it is discriminatory to have two different standards of health care – one for urban and the other for rural areas, and that the health care provided by such graduates will be compromised. At the other end is the opinion expressed by some that “something is better than nothing”, that since doctors do not want to serve in rural areas, the government may as well create a new cadre of medics who will be obliged to serve there. The debate will surely pick up after the government formally lays out its plans. What is apparent is that neither this proposal nor the various stopgap measures adopted so far address the root of the problem of health care. The far larger issue is government policy, the low priority attached by the government to the social sector as a whole and the health sector in particular, evidenced in the paltry allocations for maintaining and upgrading medical infrastructure and medical education and for looking after precious human resources.

 

1. What solution is being offered by the Health Ministry for the shortage of doctors in rural areas?

(a) Increase the number of government run hospitals in the rural areas thereby increasing the number of doctors catering to the people in these regions.

(b) Make it mandatory for doctors serving in the urban areas to serve in the rural areas for a specific number of years

(c) Set up increasing number of community health centers in rural areas

(d) Hire retired professors of medicine to offer medical help to people living in the rural areas till the time more doctors are appointed

(e) Run a separate medical course for three and a half years which can be taken up only by rural candidates who would ultimately serve in the rural areas

 

2. Why have some existing medical colleges been prohibited from admitting students?

(a) As these have adopted corrupt practices and have been taking huge donations from their students

(b) As all these colleges were illegally set up and were not approved by the government in the first place

(c) As the course offered by these colleges is not in line with the course offered by the government run colleges

(d) As these have failed to meet the norms set by the central government for running the college

(e) As there are absolutely no faculty members left in these colleges to teach students

 

3. Which of the following is/are the change/s announced by the MCI in the regulation governing the establishment of medical college?

(A) Allowing the commercialization of medical colleges.

(B) Reducing the earlier mandated land requirement for a medical college campus for metros.

(C) Allowing corporate bodies to open medical colleges.

(a) Only (B)

(b) Only (A) and (B)

(c) Only (C)

(d) Only (B) and (C)

(e) All (A), (B) and (C) are true

 

4. Which of the following are the different opinions regarding the BRMS proposal?

(A) At least a small step has been taken to improve the healthcare facilities in the rural areas through this proposal.

(B) There should be uniform healthcare facilities available for people living in both rural and urban area

(C) The healthcare providers through this proposal would not be up to the mark.

(a) Only (A)

(b) Only (A) and (B)

(c) Only (B) and (C)

(d) Only (B)

(e) All (A), (B) and (C)

 

5. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?

(a) Healthcare in India – The Questionable Changes

(b) Medical Centers in Rural India

(c) Commercialization of Medical Education in India

(d) The Medical Council of India

(e) The BRMS Proposal – The Way Out for Rural India

 

6. What is one of the major problems faced by the government– run medical institutions?

(a) Dearth of land required for the setting up of medical institutions

(b) Lack of funds for running the colleges

(c) Dearth of teaching faculty

(d) Excessive competition from colleges run by corporate bodies

(e) Dearth of students opting for these colleges

 

7. What is the idea behind the MCI putting in place the RFID based smart card?

(A) To monitor and track faculty from MCI headquarters in the future.

(B) To put a stop to the practice of colleges of presenting fake faculty members.

(C) To verify the authenticity of faculty member qualifications.

(a) Only (A) and (B)

(b) All (A), (B) and (C)

(c) Only (C)

(d) Only (B) and (C)

(e) Only (B)

 

8. What is the author’s main intention behind writing this passage?

(a) To make the general public aware of the healthcare facilities available in India

(b) To bring to light the problems faced by the healthcare sector in India despite changes suggested and goad the government into attaching priority to the sector

(c) To bring to light the problems faced by rural people in terms of healthcare facilities and thus exhort urban doctors to serve in the rural areas

(d) To make the general public aware of the benefits arising from the changes brought about by the MCI in the healthcare sector

(e) To urge the corporate bodies to look into the matter of healthcare facilities in the rural areas

 

Directions(9–12): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

9. FLAGGED

(a) highlighted

(b) stopped

(c) bannered

(d) caused

(e) hoisted

 

10. FALLING SHORT

(a) remaining tiny

(b) limiting

(c) stumbling upon

(d) just satisfying

(e) not meeting

 

11. PERMITTED

(a) forbidden

(b) pressed

(c) allowed

(d) sent

(e) forced

 

12. SHOCKING

(a) wicked

(b) pleasing

(c) appalling

(d) electrifying

(e) scandalous

 

Directions(13–15): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

13. UNSCRUPULOUS

(a) corrupt

(b) even

(c) constant

(d) honest

(e) measured

 

14. SHARP

(a) mild

(b) thin

(c) blunt

(d) rounded

(e) pointed

 

15. COMPLIANT

(a) fixed

(b) unyielding

(c) stagnant

(d) obedient

(e) negative

 

(RC-10) Directions (1-10): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.

Corruption is a broad term covering a wide range of misuse of entrusted funds and power for personal gain i.e. Theft, fraud, nepotism, abuse of power etc. A corrupt act is often - but not necessarily - illegal. In handling corruption, you will often face a Gray zones and dilemmas. In many countries, corruption is everywhere and daily life is riddled with situations in the Gray zone between legal and illegal. Many people accept petty corruption as a fact of life. But the causes might differ, however, whether corruption results from a need, a culture or simply from an opportunity too tempting not to exploit, it influences the way we deal with it - or don’t deal with it. Corruption can occur on different scales. There is corruption that occurs as small favors between a small number of people (petty corruption), corruption that affects the government on a large scale (grand corruption), and corruption that is so prevalent that it is part of the everyday structure of society, including corruption as one of the symptoms of organized crime (systemic corruption).

The main reason for the spread of corruption is that the people in the highest seat of power are corrupt unless the people at the top rung of power are honest and free from corruption; there is absolutely no possibility of eradicating corruption. If there is widespread corruption in India , it is because the people at the top are really corrupt .No subordinate will have to guts to be corrupt if the people at the top of the administration are honest and take stern action against the corrupt people .They cannot be harsh to the corrupt people , since it is through the corrupt subordinates that the people at the top get their share of the bribes .If one can make a discrete enquiry with the pavement traders, he can find out how much the police and the corporation councilors collect from the pavement traders .They say that the money so collected is shared by people from the top to the bottom. If the head is corrupt, what will the limbs do? The causes of corruption in India also include excessive regulations, complicated taxes and licensing systems, numerous government departments each with opaque bureaucracy and discretionary powers, monopoly by government controlled institutions on certain goods and services delivery, and the lack of transparent laws and processes. There are significant variations in level of corruption as well as in state government efforts to reduce corruption across India.

A 2005 study done by Transparency International in India found that more than 62% of the people had firsthand experience of paying bribe or peddling influence to get a job done in a public office. Taxes and bribes are common between state borders; Transparency International estimates that truckers pay annually 22,200 crores (US$ 4.5 billion) in bribes. Government regulators and police share in bribe money, each to the tune of 43% and 45% respectively. The en route stoppages including those at checkpoints and entry-points take up to 11 hours in a day. About 60% of these (forced) stoppages on road by concerned authorities such as government regulators, police, forest, sales and excise, octroi, weighing and measuring department are for extorting money. The loss in productivity due to these stoppages is an important national concern. The number of truck trips could increase by 40%, if forced delays are avoided. According to a 2007 World Bank published report, the travel time for a Delhi-Mumbai trip can be reduced by about 2 days per trip if the corruption and associated regulatory stoppages to extract bribes was eliminated.

 

1. How many rupees are paid by truckers annually as per the study of transparency international?

 

(a) US $ 5.5 billion

(b) Rs. 22, 000 crore

(c) Rs. 22, 200 crore

(d) US $ 4 billion

(e) None of these

 

2. What is the main objective of writer behind writing the passage?

(a) It gives an idea of right and wrong judgement.

(b) To remove the corruption from top to bottom.

(c) To throw light on corruption.

(d) Both 1 and 2

(e) None of these

 

3. What is petty corruption?

(a) When corruption doesn't occur in many people.

(b)Corruption found from top to bottom in every department.

(c) When people of a particular department is corrupt.

(d) Where head of the departments are corrupt.

(e) None of these

 

4. Why the corruption is increasing so rapidly?

(a) Because all the employees are interested in it.

(b) The people in the highest seat of power our involved in the corruption.

(c) Government is unable to control over the corruption.

(d) There is a lack of strict laws against it.

(e) None of these

 

5. What do you understand by Gray zones as used in the passage?

(a) Double meaning.

(b) A puzzled situation but can be solved.

(c) Lack of knowledge.

(d) A topic that is not clear or full of ambiguity.

(e) None of these

 

Direction (6-8): Choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning as the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

6. RUNG

(a) Hierarchy

(b) Step

(c) Grade

(d) Stage

(e) Cross bar

 

7. ERADICATE

(a) Undo

(b) Erase

(c) Massacre

(d) Annihilate

(e) Abate

 

8. GUTS

(a) Stamina

(b) Courage

(c) Heart

(d)Mettle

(e) Spirit

 

Direction (9-10): Choose the word which is most OPPOSITE in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.

 

9. PREVALENT

(a) Abnormal

(b) Isolated

(c) Infrequent

(d) Limited

(e) Ubiquitous

 

10. STERN

(a) Tough

(b) Easy

(c) Gentle

(d) Flexible

(e) Lenient

 

 

 

ANSWER KEY

 

Reading Comprehension - 1

 

1. Ans.(a) - It is mentioned in the paragraph about degradation of natural resources and its consequences and it will lead to ‘poor economic utilization of resources.’

2. Ans.(b) - According to NEERI: seventy percent of total water available in the country is polluted.

3. Ans.(b) - Municipal sewage pollutants account for: seventy-five percent of the Ganga’s water pollution load.

4. Ans.(d) - All of the above are correct.

5. Ans.(d) - The cost of the Clean-the-Ganga Pollution Project Action Plan is likely to be sourced from:the U.S., U.K., Netherlands, Poland, France, the World Bank and India.

6. Ans.(d) - Both (a) and (b) are correct.

7. Ans.(d) - Considerable amounts of metal pollutants are found in the river(s): Ganga, Yamuna, Kali, Hindon, Cauvery and Kapila.

8. Ans.(c) - drying up of water sources and over-pumping.

9. Ans.(b) - cleaning up polluted water.

10. Ans.(a) - about 53 percent.

 

Reading Comprehension - 2

1. Ans.(a) - evaluate a research study

2. Ans.(a) - included both election data and survey data

3. Ans.(d) - A one-party government

4. Ans.(c) - out-of-date in that they are inapplicable in the four countries today

5. Ans.(e) - had possessed the right to vote for the shortest time

6. Ans.(b) - Suffered from faults similar to those in Duverger’s study

 

 

Reading Comprehension – 3

1. Ans.(b) - explaining the importance of a recent theory

2. Ans.(a) - were formed from metamorphic fluids

3. Ans.(c) - Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a site for further exploration

4. Ans.(b) - New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the result of exploration techniques designed to locate buried mineralization.

5. Ans.(d) - A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold

6. Ans.(a) - It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming processes, and, hence, can support conceptual models that have great practical significance.

7. Ans.(c) - Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are buried and have no surface expression.

8. Ans.(d) - Furtive -attempting to avoid notice or attention, typically because of guilt or a belief that discovery would lead to trouble; secretive.

9. Ans.(d) - Fleeting -lasting for a very short time.

 

Reading Comprehension - 4

 

1. Ans.(e) - Appropriate title will be: The Effects of Food Intake on the Production and Release of Serotonin: Some Recent Findings

2. Ans.(a) - the amount of protein presents in a meal

3. Ans.(e) -serotonin levels increased after rats were injected with a large amount of tryptophan

4. Ans.(c) -cause the rats to produce insulin

5. Ans.(b) - the ratio of the rat’s blood-tryptophan concentration to the concentration in its blood of the other amino acids contained in the protein

6. Ans.(c) - help explain why a particular research finding was obtained

7. Ans.(d) - tryptophan

8. Ans.(a) - Meals consisting almost exclusively of protein

9. Ans.(a) -The rats’ brain serotonin levels would not decrease.

10.Ans.(c)- Fledgling - a person or organization that is immature, inexperienced, or underdeveloped.

11. Ans.(d) -Apathy-lack of interest, enthusiasm, or concern.

12. Ans.(d) -Bucolic-relating to the pleasant aspects of the countryside and country life.

13. Ans.(d) -Veneration-great respect; reverence.

14. Ans.(c) -Vitriolic -filled with bitter criticism or malice.

15. Ans.(c) - Soporific -tending to induce drowsiness or sleep.

 

 

Reading Comprehension – 5

 

1. Ans.(b) - ‘manage our human success system properly’

2. Ans.(c) - what we tell our minds we want

3. Ans.(d) - they teach us how to use the machine in a manner as to get the best possible result out of it.

4. Ans.(d) - the most advanced living organism in the world is ‘mankind’.

5. Ans.(b) - in achieving what we don’t want in life

6. Ans.(b) - understand our mental laws

7. Ans.(c) - The subject under discussion in the passage is ‘human mind’.

8. Ans.(a) - help the reader in being successful

9. Ans.(b) - Negate- deny (the existence of)

10. Ans.(a) - the human mind

11. Ans.(b) - Celestial-positioned in or relating to the sky, or outer space as observed in astronomy.

12. Ans.(a) - Duplicity-deceitfulness.

13. Ans.(c) - conceal-not allow to be seen; hide.

14. Ans.(b) - Extant-still in existence; surviving., defunct- no longer existing or functioning.

15. Ans.(c) - Nauseated-affect with nausea.

 

Reading Comprehension - 6

 

1. Ans.(d) - Their failure to attract those outside the formal banking system as customers

2. Ans.(c) - The realization that a large percentage of the American population not reached by mainstream banks can be trapped

3. Ans.(c) - America has the largest number of banks in the world.

4. Ans.(e) - None of the given statements

5. Ans.(a) - None

6. Ans.(c) - A discussion about the prospects of Grameen and microfinance in the US.

7. Ans.(b) - Only A

8. Ans.(e) - Backing that borrows receive from other group members.

9. Ans.(a) - Avoided

10. Ans.(a) - Short

11. Ans.(a) - adversary

12. Ans.(d) - alert

13. Ans.(d) - negative

14. Ans.(a) - unequivocal

15. Ans.(b) - admiration

 

Reading Comprehension – 7

 

1. Ans.(a) - It is mentioned about ‘REM sleep’.

2. Ans.(c) - Rest one’s brain as sleep deprivation may cause certain chemical reactions.

3. Ans.(a) - It is mentioned in the passage about” One’s dreams are the manifestations of one’s hidden sexual problems”.

4. Ans.(a) - About four cycles are repeated throughout a single night’s sleep

5. Ans.(d) - Theta waves.

6. Ans.(d) - All of the above were suggested by Freud.

7. Ans.(d) - It implies- Being not in control of one’s movements or thoughts.

8. Ans.(d) - All of the above

9. Ans.(c) - Those who do not dream are -- Not trying to listen to what their dreams are saying.

10. Ans.(b) - the level of cholesterol in the brain during sleep goes down.

 

Reading Comprehension – 8

 

1.Ans.(e) - None of these

2.Ans.(b) - It is mentioned in the passage- the reasonable requirement of American troops to fight the war in Iraq

3.Ans.(d) - None of the mentioned statements are true.

4.Ans.(a) - It is mentioned about ‘ Such strategies are better left to army commanders to decide on the ground.’

5.Ans.(b) - The author of the passage appears to be- critical about Bush’s strategy of handling situation in Iraq

6.Ans.(a) - It is mentioned ‘America’s desired goal will be achieved if more troops are deployed in Iraq.

7.Ans.(d) - Only A and B statements are relevant.

8.Ans.(b) - Only B and C are relevant.

9.Ans.(b) - Only statements B and C are relevant.

10.Ans.(a) - Cool and warm are opposites.

11.Ans.(c) - Surge and reduction are opposites in meaning.

12.Ans.(e) - Stubbornness and Flexibility are opposites in meaning.

13.Ans.(d) - Illusion and delusion are synonyms in meaning.

14.Ans.(a) - Insurgency and Rebellion are synonyms in meaning.

15.Ans.(d) - Irony and Mockery are synonyms in meaning.

 

Reading Comprehension - 9

 

1. Ans.(e) - medical course for three and a half years which can be taken up only by rural candidates.

2. Ans.(d) - Sol.these colleges do not meet the norms sety the central government.

3. Ans.(d) - Sol.option (B) and (C) correctly define the statement.

4. Ans.(c) - option (B) and (C) correctly define the statement.

5. Ans.(a) - Title ‘Healthcare in India – The Questionable Changes’ will be appropriate.

6. Ans.(c) - Sol.lack of trained teaching faculty.

7. Ans.(b) - All option are correct in the given context.

8. Ans.(b) - Sol.to highlight the problems faced by healthcare sector and grab the attention of the Government.

9. Ans.(a) - flag-mark (an item) for attention or treatment in a specified way.

10. Ans.(e) - FALLING SHORT – not meeting the requirement.

11. Ans.(c) - PERMITTED means allowed.

12. Ans.(c) - appalling-horrifying; shocking.

13. Ans.(d) - UNSCRUPULOUS-having or showing no moral principles; not honest or fair.

14. Ans.(d) - sharp-(of an object) having an edge or point that is able to cut or pierce something.

15. Ans. (b) - COMPLIANT-meeting or in accordance with rules or standards unyielding- (of a person or their behaviour) unlikely to be swayed; resolute.

 

Reading Comprehension - 10

 

1. Ans.(c) - Transparency International estimates that truckers pay annually 22,200 crores (US$ 4.5 billion) in bribes.

2. Ans.(c) - ‘To throw light on corruption’ is the main purpose of the writer.

3. Ans.(a) - petty corruption -When corruption doesn't occur in many people.

4. Ans.(b) - The people in the highest seat of power our involved in the corruption.

5. Ans.(d) - A topic that is not clear or full of ambiguity.

6. Ans.(a) - RUNG- a position or level within a group, organization, etc., that is higher or lower than others

7. Ans.(d) - ERADICATE-destroy completely; put an end to.

8. Ans.(b) - GUTS means courage.

9. Ans.(c) - PREVALENT-widespread in a particular area or at a particular time.

10.Ans.(e) - STERN-(of a person or their manner) serious and unrelenting, especially in the assertion of authority and exercise of discipline.

PARA JUMBLE SET - 5

PARA JUMBLE SET - 5

2736   13-Apr-2018, Fri

 

 

Para Jumble -1

(A) But I always felt somewhere in my mind that I loved acting.

(B) He never wanted me to be an actor, as he didn’t look upon theatre or acting as respectable vocation.

(C) Firstly, there was no tradition of theatre in my family.

(D) I am talking specifically of acting, not theatre in general.

(E) My parents were old-fashioned.

(F) I will answer all your queries a little elaborately.

(G) Let alone theatre, arts in general had no place of respect in my family.

(H) My father was a government servant.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

1) G

2) C

3) H

4) D

5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) D

4) C

5) F

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) A

4) D

5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) E

3) A

4) B

5) G

 

Q5. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) H

2) K

3) G

4) C

5) A

 

Para Jumble -2

(A) It takes its recourse to progressive march towards perfection.

(B) But, one may conclude, while science is inclined towards reason, spiritualism is the essence of religion.

(C) In religion deviation from the set course is permissible, though some more rationalistic religious leaders also allow questioning and their satisfactory answers.

(D) Many people believe that science and religion are contrary to each other.

(E) The tools of religion, on the other hand, are faith, intuition, and the spoken word of the enlightened.

(F) The method of science is observation, experiment and experience.

(G) There is no doubt that the methods of science and religion are different.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?

1) F

2) E

3) D

4) B

5) G

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?

1) B

2) A

3) D

4) F

5) C

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?

1)C

2)A

3)D

4)B

5)E

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?

1) C

2) B

3) D

4) F

5) A

 

Q5. Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence?

 

1) C

2) F

3) A

4) G

5) D

 


Para Jumble -3

A) Depression is possible and if they don't get enough exercise, obesity is also on the cards.

B) A lot of people keep dogs tied all day.

C) They could exhibit other behavioural disorders such as chewing on their own leg or licking themselves constantly out of boredom, causing skin problems.

D) The other major risk is exposure to the elements for example, when they are tied in direct sunlight; they are at risk of dehydration and heat stroke.

E) Habitual tying is never a good thing.

F) This causes behavioural issues – they might start to become excessively vociferous or aggressive.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?

1) E

2) D

3) C

4) A

5) F

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?

1) C

2) A

3) D

4) B

5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement ?

1) F

2) C

3) E

4) B

5) D

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?

1) C

2) A

3) B

4) D

5) F

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?

1) D

2) E

3) F

4) B

5) C

 


 

 

Para Jumble -4

(A) The north is bordered by mountain ranges while the remaining sides of Greece are enclosed by the Mediterranean sea.
(B) The people there were called the Greeks.
(C) Greeks, therefore, became good navigators.
(D) The typical character of Greek civilisation is due to the geographic conditions prevailing there.
(E) The name Greece comes from one of the islands to the south-east of Europe known as Graecia.

 

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?
1) C

2) D

3) A

4) B

5) E
 

Q2. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?
1) B

2) E

3) A

4) D

5) C

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?
1) A

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?
1) C

2) D

3) B

4) E

5) A
 

Q5. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?
1) B

2) C

3) A

4) E

5) D

 

Para Jumble -5

(A) We must explore new methods of boosting agricultural development and grow more food.
(B) The scientists should be encouraged to contribute.
(C) Food can also be had by import.
(D) The most important factor in any planning for India’s development and economic uplift is that of turning a hungry, discontented people into a happy well-fed one.
(E) Whatever be the way and means, India must feed its hungry millions.
(F) They should be given due scope for carrying on experiments and researches.
(B) The problem, therefore, reduces itself to one of agricultural development.

Q1. Which of the following is the fourth sentence in the paragraph?

1) A

2)D

3) E

4) G

5) F

Q2. Which of the following is fifth sentence in the paragraph?

1) G

2) A

3) D

4) C

5) E
 

Q3. Which of the following is the third sentence in the paragraph?
1) F

2) A

3) G

4) D

5) E
 

Q4. Which of the following is the last sentence in the paragraph?
1) F

2) C

3) D

4) B

5) G
 

Q5. Which of the following is the second sentence in the paragraph?
1) B

2) E

3) C

4) G

5) F

 


Para Jumble -6

A) In the forest, a pair of leopards are said to have destroyed 50 watermelons in a field in one night.

B) While most of them are carnivores, a few are exceptions like eating giant pandas.

C) Carnivores are meat-eaters.

D) Crocodiles aren't the only carnivores to eat fruit, Jackals eat peanuts, dates and jamun.

E) The distinguishing character is not what they eat but the presence of claws, canines, and molars.

F) But the scientific classification of life forms includes an order of mammals called carnivora , a huge group of weasels, civets, dogs, cats, bears, mongooses and seals.

G) Brown palm civets live on a predominantly fruit diet, earning it the distinction of being one of the most frugivorous carnivores in the world, Frugivorous carnivore sounds like a contradiction.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) D

3) E

4) G

5) B

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the Last (SEVENTH) sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) E

4) A

5) F

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) F

2) D

3) A

4) C

5) G

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) E

3) A

4) F

5) C

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the SIXTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) D

3) B

4) E

5) C

 

Para Jumble -7

(A) The socialisation function of the family is a generalised one and is aimed at preparing us for membership of kinship group and the community.
(B) The family is only one of the varieties of agencies of socialisation.
(C) ln other words, through the socialization process we learn the basic facts necessary for the performance of a variety of social roles in the society in which we grow up.
(D) Socialisation is the process by which cultural, social and moral values and beliefs are transmitted from one generation to the next.
(E) The way in which the process operates will depend largely upon the views taken by the parents of what their children ought to be like when they are grown up.

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E
 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement? .
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5)E

 

Q5. Which of following will be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E


 

Para Jumble -8

(A) For other wishes, it enlists the help of those who make or own what the child desires.
(B) It grants some wishes with its own funds depending upon the availability of funds.
(C) I was deeply moved when I learnt about the activity of “Make – a Wish foundation”.
(D) From parents, friends, or hospital attendants, the foundation learns about the child’s wish for anything from a special toy to a visit to Disneyland.
(E) I am sure you also now must have been moved by the noble act of the foundation.
(F) It grants the wishes of children who are terminally ilL

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B
 

Q2. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B


Q3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement? ’
1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B
 

Q4. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B
 

Q5. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?
1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B
 

 

Para Jumble -9

(A) It is a general term used to describe over 200 individual diseases.
(B) The abnormal cells grow without any control, invade through normal tissue barriers and reproduce indefinitely.
(C) The word "cancer" comes from Latin, meaning a crab.
(D) These characteristics include development within any tissue of a malignant growth.
(E) A tumour was called cancer because of swollen veins around the area resembling a crab's limbs.
(F) These diseases progress differently over a period of time and share certain characteristics.

Q1. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) None of these

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) None of these
 

Q5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) None of these
 

 

Para Jumble -10

(A) Happiness, if at all found, is accompanied with sorrow.

(B) This attitude helps us to cope up with our unhappiness.

(C) The world is full of miseries, problems, risks and discomfiture.

(D) It also helps us to be sympathetic to others who are more unhappy.

(E) Therefore, it seems to be wise to compare our lot with the lot of those who are less fortunate.

(F) None can find here perfect happiness.

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) D

4) E

5) F

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) D

4) E

5) F

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) D

4) E

5) F

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) D

4) E

5) F

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) D

4) E

5) F


 

Para Jumble -11

(A) Equally, if you show disloyalty to your company or colleagues, your manners will be seen as unacceptable.

(B) Much of this book is concerned with this golden rule.

(C) The other half is good manners invoke taking positive action to make the other person feel good about your relationship with him.

(D) They indicate to the person you are dealing with whether you can be relied on to act correctly and fairly when he does business with you.

(E) Avoiding these negatives is only half the story.

(F) Manners are the patterns of behaviour.

(G) If he thinks that you are boorish, selfish or undisciplined your relationship is unlikely to be proper.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the SEVENTH sentence?

1) C

2) D

3) E

4) B

5) A

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?

1) G

2) F

3) A

4) B

5) C

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence? '

1) G

2) E

3) F

4) B

5) A

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence?

1) A

2) G

3) E

4) F

5) D

 

Q5. Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence?

1) B

2) D

3) F

4) A

5) C


Para Jumble -12

(A) To propose the idea of becoming perfected is not the same as saying that we human beings can be perfect.

(B) It only means that we are capable of learning, changing and growing throughout the span of our earthly life.

(C) Learning is a process that begins at birth and lasts till death.

(D) This development through understanding new things, transforming and developing throughout may be considered as the perfection of soul.

(E) Given that we are here to continually learn on the journey of life, it seems that the ultimate goal of learning is the perfection of our souls.

(F) Nor that we should be perfect in everything.

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the THIRD statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) F

 

Q4. Which of the following should be FOURTH statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) F

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the LAST statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) c

4) D

5) E

 

Para Jumble -13

(A) All these changes, though not sweeping, have class, caste and gender elements to them, as also urban and rural differences.

(B) There is more premarital sexual activity, more divorce and separation, more single-parent families more senior citizens living by themselves.
(C) The change in family composition in rural areas, for instance, largely linked to fertility charges and migration patterns.

(D) As a nation, we have been witnessing a great range of changes in the way we live, eat, dress, travel and communicate.

(E) We now live longer, have fewer babies, marry outside our core social group, live apart in small groups comprising only parents and children.

 

Q1.Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) C

3) D

4) B

5) E

 

Q2.Which of the following would be the LAST (FIFTH) sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) C

3) E

4) D

5) A

 

Q3.Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) E

2) D

3) B

4) C

5) A

 

Q4.Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) C

2) A

3) B

4) D

5) E

 

Q5.Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) A

3) C

4) E

5) B


 

Para Jumble -14

(A) Development of drought resistance could benefit large numbers of farmers.

(B) Hence the human race has no choice but to adapt to these impacts.

(C) lndia has to be concerned about climatic changes.

(D)This impact can run into decades and centuries.

(E) Environment day is thus an important occasion to assess the past and our future.

(F) Since there is a possibility of adverse impact on agriculture which could deter growth.

 

Q1. Which is the THIRD sentence of the paragraph?

1) A

2) D

3) B

4) C

5) E

 

Q2. Which is the LAST (SIXTH) sentence of the paragraph?

1) C

2) B

3) F

4) D

5) E

 

Q3. Which is the FIRST sentence of the paragraph?

1) A

2) D

3) C

4) B

5) E

 

Q4. Which is the FIFTH’ sentence of the paragraph?

1) F

2) D

3) E

4) A

5) C

 

Q5. Which is the SECOND sentence of the paragraph?

1) B

2) D

3) F

4) C

5) E


 

Para Jumble -15

(A) Basic human needs also include a sense of belongingness, a feeling of control over one’s life.

(B) Motivation and inspiration energise people into action.

(C) Ability to live up to one’s ideals besides all these is also a fundamental need.

(D) This is done not by pushing them in the right direction as control mechanisms.

(E) Such feelings touch us deeply and elicit powerful response.

(F) But it is done by satisfying basic human needs for achievement,

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH statement after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Para Jumble -16

(A) They pay the "listed" price for items; perhaps they avoid conflict.

(B) Yet many individuals do not think of themselves as bargainers.

(C) But a shopping in local market gives you an opportunity to bargain and reflect about what you do as negotiator.

(D) Many people bargains and negotiates.

(E) Their reluctance to bargain may reflect reserve nature or lack of experience to risk through negotiation.

(F) Some people enjoy it; some people are good at it.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

1) E

2) C

3) A

4) B

5) F

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) B

3) F

4) A

5) C

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) F

2) D

3) B

4) A

5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) E

3) F

4) A

5) C

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) A

3) B

4) C

5) F

 

Para Jumble -17

A) Drought affected more than one billion people between 1994 and 2013 or 25% of the global total.

B) This shows tsunamis almost twenty times more deadly than ground movements.

C) Earthquakes (including tsunamis) killed more people than all other types of disaster put together.

D) Some 41% of drought disasters were in Africa. indicating that lower-income countries are still being overwhelmed by drought despite effective early warnings being in place.

E) Tsunamis are the most deadly sub-type of earthquake compared to ground movements.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E

2) C

3) B

4) A

5) D

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) A

3) C

4) E

5) D

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) E

3) C

4) B

5) A

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) C

3) D

4) B

5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?

1) C

2) D

3) E

4) A

5) B

 

Para Jumble -18

(A) The group desired to enhance the learning experience in schools with an interactive digital medium that could be used within and outside the class-room.
(B) Then the teacher can act on the downloaded data rather than collect it from each and every student and thereby save his time and effort.
(C) Edutor, decided the group engineers, all alumni of the Indian Institute of technology, when they founded Edutor Technologies in August 2009.
(D) They can even take tests and submit them digitally using the same tablets and the teachers in turn can download the tests using the company’s cloud services.
(E) With this desire they created a solution that digitizes school textbooks and other learning material so that students no longer need to carry as many books to school and back as before, but can access their study material on their touch-screen tablets.
(F) A mechanic works on motors and an accountant has his computer. Likewise, if a student has to work on a machine or device, what should it be called ?

Q1. Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) F

(3) E

(4) B

(5) D

 

Q2. Which of the following sentences should be the FOURTH after rearrangement?
(1) A

(2) F

(3) E

(4) B

(5) C


Q3. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?
(1) A

(2) D

(3) C

(4) E

(5) C


 

 

Q4. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement?
(1) F

(2) D

(3) A

(4) C

(5) E

 

 

Q5. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after rearrangement?
(1) A

(2) B

(3) D

(4) E

(5) F
 

 

Para Jumble -19

(A) There are a number of items in the atomic energy programme which are being made indigenously.

(B) Given the overall energy situation in India, the use of nuclear power in some measure is inescapable even while thermal and hydro power continue to be the dominant elements.

(C) However, commercial aspects of exploiting nuclear capabilities, especially for power-generation programmes, have been recently given high priority.

(D) Atomic energy programmes have been subject to severe restrictions for very obvious reasons as the Department of Atomic Energy is becoming self-reliant in areas in which only a few countries have such capability.

(E) Even to meet these nuclear power requirements, India critically requires a commercial-level power-generation capability, with its commensurate safety and nuclear waste management arrangements.

(F) Thus, in the Indian context energy security is also crucial, perhaps much more than it is for the USA, because India imports a good part of its crude oil requirements, paying for it with precious foreign exchange.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E


 

Para Jumble -20

(A) To address these issues Indian corporates are increasingly turning eco-friendly.
(B) At present, however, there are only a dozen green buildings in the private sector.
(C) However, though an eco-friendly building may cost more upfront, it is cost-friendly building may cost more upfront, it is cost-effective because of lower operating costs in the long run.
(D) Today there is growing concern about global warming, energy and water crises.
(E) The reason is the construction cost of an eco- friendly building is 15% to 20% more than putting up a conventional building.
(F) Planting trees, using energy-saving lighting systems and constructing eco-friendly green buildings are some of the measures they are taking.

Q1. Which of the following will be the FIRST Sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E
 

Q2. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?
(1) A

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E

(5) F

Q3. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B

(2) D

(3) C

(4) E

(5) F
 

Q4. Which of the following will be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?
(1) C

(2) D

(3) E

(4) F

(5) A
 

Q5. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?
(1) B

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E

(5) F
 

ANSWER KEY

Para Jumble- 1

Para Jumble -2

Para Jumble -3

E B F C A D

Para Jumble -4

Para Jumble -5

1- 4

1- 5

1- 3

1- 4

1- 1

2- 5

2- 2

2- 5

2- 1

2- 4

3- 1

3- 4

3- 1

3- 5

3- 3

4- 2

4- 3

4- 2

4- 3

4- 1

5- 3

5- 1

5- 4

5- 2

5- 2

 

 

Para Jumble -6

DAGCFEB

 

Para Jumble -7

D B A C E

Para Jumble -8

CFDBAE

Para Jumble -9

CEAFDB

Para Jumble -10

1- 2

1- 2

1- 5

1- 5

1- 2

2- 1

2- 3

2- 2

2- 1

2- 1

3- 4

3- 4

3- 1

3- 5

3- 3

4- 3

4- 1

4- 3

4- 4

4- 5

5- 4

5- 5

5- 4

5- 2

5- 4

 

 

Para Jumble -11

FDGAECB

Para Jumble -12

C E A F B D

Para Jumble -13

Para Jumble -14

Para Jumble -15

1- 4

1- 3

1- 3

1- 2

1- 2

2- 2

2- 5

2- 2

2- 5

2- 4

3- 1

3- 1

3- 3

3- 3

3- 1

4- 3

4- 5

4- 2

4- 4

4- 5

5- 5

5- 4

5- 4

5- 3

5- 3

 

Para Jumble -16

D F B A E C

Para Jumble -17

C E B A D

Para Jumble -18

F C A E D B

Para Jumble -19

BDACEF

Para Jumble- 20

D A F B E C

1- 2

1- 1

1- 4

1- 5

1- 4

2- 1

2- 3

2- 3

2- 1

2- 1

3- 3

3- 5

3- 2

3- 4

3- 5

4- 2

4- 4

4- 1

4- 2

4- 1

5- 5

5- 2

5- 1

5- 3

5- 4

 

 

 

PARA JUMBLE SET- 4

PARA JUMBLE SET-4

2376   13-Apr-2018, Fri

 

Para Jumble -1

(A)It is obvious from the above that the Commission has accorded highest priority to securing speedy justice to women.

(B)These members continue to pursue their mandated activities, namely review of legislation, intervention in specific individual complaints of atrocities and denial of rights.

(C)The functions assigned to the Commission, as per the Act, are wide and varied covering almost all the facets of issues relating to safeguarding women’s rights and promotion.

(D)The National Commission for Women was set up on 31st January, 1992 in pursuance of the National Commission for Women Act 1990.

(E)Towards this end of speedy justice to women, the Commission is organising Parivarik Mahila Lok Adalats, offering counselling in family disputes and conducting training programmes for creating legal awareness among women.

(F)They also suggest remedial action to safeguard the interest of women to the appropriate authorities.

(G)To carry out these functions, the Commission has a chairman, five members and a Member-Secretary, all nominated by the Central Government.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?

(A) A

(B) C

(C) D

(D) B

(E) E

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?

(A) C

(B) D

(C) E

(D) F

(E) A

 

Q3.Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?

(A) G

(B) F

(C) D

(D) C

(E) E

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?

 

(A) G

(B) B

(C) F

(D) D

(E) C

Q5.Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence?

(A) C

(B) D

(C) F

(D) E

(E) B

 

Para Jumble -2

(A) If the effect is real it will have a big effect on cosmology and space navigation.

(B) If could rewrite the laws of physics.

(C) A space probe launched 30 years ago has come under the influence of a force, baffling the scientists.

(D) The effect shows no sign of getting weaker as the space craft travels deeper into the space.

(E) Scientists are considering the possibility that the force had revealed a new force of nature.

(F) The Pioneer-10, which took the first pictures of the Jupiter, is being pulled back to the sun by an unknown force,

 

Q1. Which should be the SIXTH sentence?

(1) A

(2) C

(3) D

(4) F

(5) B

 

Q2. Which should be the FOURTH sentence?

(1) F

(2) E

(3) C

(4) D

(5) A

 

Q3. Which should be the FIRST sentence?

(1) B

(2) F

(3) C

(4) E

(5) A

 

Q4. Which should be the THIRD sentence?

(1) A

(2) E

(3) D

(4) C

(5) F

 

Q5. Which should be the FIFTH sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E


 

Para Jumble -3

A) The application of economics, environmental and consumer pressures have been on an increase in recent years.

B) As a result our agro-food production design and technology are amongst the most advanced in the world.

C) They are thus able to provide expertise and technology to satisfy the needs of agro food production.

D) In turn, the support industries have developed to an equally advanced state.

E) They have also equipped themselves with the necessary expertise to satisfy the most exacting requirement of the overseas markets.

F) These have greatly influenced the development of the agriculture and food industries in our country.

 

Q1.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D


Q2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D


Q3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D

 

Q5.Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) F

(5) D


 

Para Jumble -4

A) In this early period a good memory was a prerequisite for success and poets like Homer memorized their work before it was ever written down.

B) If we have to remember everything will it not increase the feeling of stress?

C) Today memory is widely regarded as a useful aid to survival.

D) However, it is not what we grasp but what we fail to forgetting a file, key points at an interview which causes stress.

E) Some people, however, are of the view that having an exceptional memory in a world of high pressure working is a disadvantage.

F) To our ancestors, though, in the absence of the printing press it was much more it was the slate on which history was recorded.

 

Q1.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) C

(5) D

 

Q5.Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) E

(2) B

(3) A

(4) F

(5) D

 

Para Jumble -5

A. There is ample justification for the phenomenon of the description.

B. In the present era also, efforts are being made to rejuvenate Pali.

C. A curious researcher can study them provided he has mastery over Pali language.

D. The Indian tradition describes Buddha as an advocate of analytical method.

E. Pali was perhaps the most commonly used language in those days.

F. This justification is found in several discourses.

­

Q1.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E


Q3. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E


Q4. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E


Q5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Para Jumble -6

(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.

(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,

(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticing her.

9(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.

(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Para Jumble -7
(A) It is not wonder that a majority of these excluded and low-achievers come from the most deprived sections of the society.

(B) They are precisely those who are supposed to be empowered through education.

(C) With heighted political consciousness about the plight of these to-be-empowered people, never in the history of India has the demand for inclusive education been as fervent as today.

(D) They either never enroll or they drop out of schools as different stages during these eight years.

(E) Of the nearly 200 million children in the age group complete eight years of elementary education.

(F) Of those who do complete eight years of schooling the achievement levels of a large percentage, in language and mathematics, is unacceptably low.

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) F

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q3.Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) F

2) E

3) D

4) B

5) A

 

Para Jumble -8

(A)If China is the world's factory, India has become the world's outsourcing centre —'keeping in line with this image.

(B)But India's future depends crucially on its ability to complete fully in the Creative Economy — not just, in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.

(C)While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.

(D)This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.

(E)Its software industry is the world's second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than half of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.

(F)If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic 'rock star'.

 

Q1.Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST') sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) F

(5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) B

(3) C

(4) A

(5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) F

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Para Jumble -9

A)In all varieties of humour, especially the subtle ones, it is therefore what the reader thinks which gives extra meaning to these verses.

B)But such a verse may also be enjoyed at the surface level.

C)Nonsense verse is one of the most sophisticated forms of literature.

D)This fulfils the author’s main intention in such a verse which is to give pleasure.

E)However, the reader who understands the broad implications of the content and allusion finds greater pleasure.

F)The reason being it requires the reader to supply a meaning beyond the surface meaning.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the Fourth sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the First sentence?

(1) F

(2) D

(3) C

(4) B

(5) A

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the Last sentence?

(1) F

(2) D

(3) C

(4) B

(5) A

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the Third sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following will the Fifth sentence?

(1) B

(2) A

(3) C

(4) D

 

Para Jumble -10

(A) The policy makers in most of the developing economies recognise this importance and have been implementing a host of programmes and measures to achieve rural development objectives.

(B) While some of these countries have achieved impressive results from those programmes and measures, others have failed to make a significant dent ' in the problem of persistent rural underdevelopment.

(C) The socio-economic disparities between rural and urban areas are widening and creating tremendous pressure on the social and economic fabric of many such developing economies.

(D) These factors, among many others, tend to highlight the importance of rural development.

(E) Although millions of rural people have escaped poverty as a result of rural development in many Asian countries, a large majority of rural people continue to suffer from persistent poverty.

 

Q1. which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q2. which of the following should be the LAST FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q3. which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E


Q4. which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q5. which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Para Jumble -11

(A) However, many of these organisations may be oblivious to the absence of attitudinal change.

(B) Teams may be unwilling to unlearn old attitudes, which can make them unequal to the new challenge.

(C) In terms of technology and strategy, most organisations rise to this challenging situation and adapt to it.

(D) In the life of an organisation, an inflexion point arrives from time to time.

(E) They may be carrying over the same attitude to the new situation to the detriment of the organisation and their personal growth.

(F) Hardly pushed before, the employees may be in denial.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) A

3) C

4) E

5) D

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?

1) E

2) B

3) C

4) A

5) D

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?

1) C

2) E

3) D

4) B

5) A

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) C

3) B

4) E

5) D

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) B

3) E

4) A

5) C


 

Para Jumble -12

(A)It is therefore a contributing factor to the growth of landfills and waterway pollution, both of which are costly and energy-intensive to solve.

(B)Making an effort to use those resources and avoid polystyrene ones can help to decrease your environmental impact.

(C)Non-biodegradable essentially means that any polystyrene that makes its way into a landfill will stay there indefinitely, never breaking down and returning to the earth.

(D)Polystyrene, as a product, is very convenient to use, but it has some important effects we should consider when making choices as consumers.

(E)While recycling polystyrene material can cushion the environment blow of its use, alternatives are available that are created from renewable resources and biodegrade more readily.

(F)For example, while polystyrene has some excellent uses and is technically recyclable, it is not a substance that biodegrades.

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) E

3) F

4) C

5) B

 

Q4.Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) C

2) E

3) D

4) B

5) A


Para Jumble -13

(A)The group desired to enhance the learning experience in schools with an interactive digital medium that could be used within and outside the class room.

(B)Then the teacher can act on the downloaded data rather than collect it from each and every student and thereby sae his time and effort.

(C)Edutor, decided the group of engineers, all alumni of the Indian Institute of technology, where they founded Edutor Technologies in August 2009.

(D)They can even take tests and submit the digitally using the same tablets and the teachers in turn can download the tests using the company’s cloud services.

(E)With this desire they created a solution that digitizes school texts books and other learning materials so that students no longer need to carry as many books to school and back as before, but can access their study material on their touch screen tablets.

(F)A mechanic works on motors and an accountant has its computer. Likewise, if a student has to work on a machine or deice, what should it be called?

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) F

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) E

3) F

4) C

5) B

 

Q4.Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) C

2) E

3) D

4) B

5) A


 

Para Jumble -14

(A) It was further revived by a Boston publishing firm, and from that time Mother Goose continued grew in fame and interest till date.

(B) The first collection of verses under her name was published in London in book form by John Newbery.

(C) These were known long before they were designated as Mother Goose rhymes.

(D) Some rhymes can be traced to popular ballads, folk songs and games, political satire, ancient proverbs, cries of street vendors, real or legendary events.

(E) About twenty five years later the book was reprinted in the United States in Worecester, Massachusetts.

(F) In fact, until the eighteenth century Mother Goose did not have a name in print in English literature.

 

Q1.Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?

(1).A

(2).B

(3).C

(4).D

(5).E

 

Q2.Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?

(1).F

(2).E

(3).D

(4).C

(5).B

 

Q3.Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence?

(1).F

(2).E

(3).D

(4).C

(5).B

 

Q4.Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?

(1).A

(2).B

(3).C

(4).D

(5).E

 

Q5.Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?

(1).A

(2).B

(3).C

(4).D

(5).E

 

Para Jumble -15

A) Japanese toys, for instance, are in great demand despite the heavy import duty.

B) The toys that they produce are almost without exception, of inferior quality.

C) Their manufacturers here need to be reminded of this.

D) The two toy-libraries in Mumbai also rely largely on foreign-made toys.

E) But making them is no child’s play

F) Toys are meant for children.

G) Not surprisingly, many parents prefer to buy the imported variety even though these are usually much more expensive.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be be the THIRD sentence?

1) C

2) B

3) D

4) E

5) G

 

Q2. Which of the following will be be the LAST sentence?

1) C

2) D

3) B

4) E

5) G

 

Q3. Which of the following will be be the FIRST sentence?

1) E

2) G

3) A

4) F

5) B

 

Q4. Which of the following will be be the FOURTH sentence?

1) C

2) E

3) B

4) G

5) D

 

Q5. Which of the following will be be the SIXTH sentence?

1) F

2) E

3) C

4) D

5) A

 

Para Jumble -16

(A)If China is the world's factory, India has become the world's outsourcing centre —'keeping in line with this image.

(B)But India's future depends crucially on its ability to complete fully in the Creative Economy — not just, in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts, culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.

(C)While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.

(D)This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.

(E)Its software industry is the world's second-largest, its tech outsourcing accounts for more than half of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.

(F)If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic 'rock star'.

 

Q1.Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST') sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q2.Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) F

(5) E

 

Q3.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) F

(2) B

(3) C

(4) A

(5) E

 

Q4.Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) F

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after the rearrangement?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Para Jumble 17

(A) As the name signifies there is no cash payment involved.

(B) With the increasing use of credit cards, debit cards and ATM cards, the society is moving towards cashless transactions.

(C) Banks run the credit risk on the holders as and when the credit cards are issued whereas debit cards are free of such risk on banks because the risk is limited to available balance in the holder’s account.

(D) In India, however, the use of credit cards is restricted mostly to personal transactions.

(E) Credit cards are available at a certain charge and overdue rate of interest varies from 18 per cent to 36 per cent per annum whereas the debit cards are issued free to user bank’s customer or holder.

(F) Credit and debit cards’ popularly also known as plastic money, are used to make payments for purchase of goods and services by the holder from the member establishments.

 

Q1.Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) C

2) B

3) A

4) E

5) D

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) B

2) A

3) C

4) D

5) F

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

1) F

2) D

3) B

4) C

5) A

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) E

3) B

4) A

5) C

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) F

2) C

3) E

4) D

5) B


Para Jumble -18

(A) “What a waste of my tax money”, I thought, walking past the people having free Californian Chardonnay.
(B) “Speak to her”, he said , “She’s into books”,
(C) The friend who had brought me there noticed my noticing her.
(D) In late 2003, I was still paying taxes in America, so it horrified me that the US Consulate was hosting a “Gallo drinking appreciation event”.
(E) Behind them, a pianist was playing old film tunes, and a slim short woman was dancing around him.

Q1.Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence?

 

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Q2.Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence?

(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

Q3.Which of the following would be the FIFTH (LAST) sentence?
(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E
 

Q4.Which of the following would be the SECOND sentence?
(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E
 

Q5.Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence?
(1) A

(2) B

(3) C

(4) D

(5) E

 

Para Jumble -19

(A) The child will be taught that hard work is necessary to bring about academic success, which is the forerunner to occupational success.
(B) In the case of the city family educated to professional standards, the process is likely to take a different form.
(C) The rural family will transmit these values to the child in order to prepare it for its future role as an adult.
(D) In the rural community emphasis will be placed upon values such as group solidarity and the belief in the natural superiority of the male.
(E) The child is more likely to be taught the values necessary for success in a world dominated by individual achievement.
(F) Thus the child will grow up placing greater value upon the family as a unit than upon himself as an individual : more emphasis i upon a segregation of the roles of husband and wife than upon equality, and so on.

Q1. Which of-the following will be FOURTH sentence?

1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B


Q2. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?
1)A

2)B

3)C

4)D

5)E

Q3. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E
 

Q4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence?
1) F

2) E

3) D

4) C

5) B
 

Q5. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?
1) A

2) B

3) C

4) D

5) E
 

Para Jumble -20

(A) Being rejected from almost every management and banking competition I applied for, taught me that strategy comes from planning and real world application of ideas not seat of the pants thinking.

(B) My failure taught me to be clearer about my practice, vision, and objectives when persuading others to get behind me.

(C) Getting dinged from 4 out of the 9 top banks taught me that accuracy matters just as much as speed when evaluating what organization or post you should align yourself with.

(D) Getting out from second round examinations taught me that I should funnel my desire for accuracy off stage.

(E) Failing my exam taught me that you have to be prepared, always, in order to be successful.

F) I've chosen a field that requires me to think logically about time management problems and apply my interest in the quantitative aptitude and accuracy.

 

1. Which of the following would be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) E

3) A

4) C

5) F

 

2. Which of the following would be the LAST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) E

3) B

4) C

5) F


3. Which of the following would be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

1) A

2) E

3) C

4) F

5) D


4. Which of the following would be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) F

2) C

3) E

4) A

5) B


5. Which of the following would be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) D

2) C

3) F

4) A

5) E

 

ANSWER KEY

            

     

Para Jumble -1

Para Jumble -2

C-F-D-E-A-B

Para Jumble -3

 

Para Jumble -4

Para Jumble -5

DAFCEB

1-4

1-5

1-c

1-d

1-d

2-2

2-2

2-d

2-b

2-a

3-5

3-3

3-e

3-c

3-c

4-1

4-3

4-a

4-a

4-e

5-3

5-1

5-d

5-d

5-b

 

Para Jumble -6

 

Para Jumble -7

Para Jumble -8

Para Jumble -9

Para Jumble -10

1-3

1-5

1-4

1-D

1-4

2-4

2-5

2-3

2-C

2-2

3-2

3-3

3-1

3-E

3-1

4-1

4-1

4-1

4-B

4-5

5-5

5-4

5-5

5-E

5-3

 

 

 

 

Para Jumble -11

D C A B F E

Para Jumble -12

Para Jumble -13

FCAEDB

Para Jumble -14

DCFBEA

Para Jumble -15

1-1

1-2

1-1

1-1

1-1

2-3

2-3

2-5

2-5

2-2

3-2

3-4

3-4

3-2

3-4

4-5

4-3

4-5

4-4

4-3

5-4

5-1

5- 3

5-3

5-5

 

 

Para Jumble -16

Para Jumble -17

BDFAEC

Para Jumble -18

Para Jumble -19

DCFBEA

Para Jumble -20

B D F E A C

1-4

1-5

1-3

1-5

1-2

2-3

2-2

2-4

2-4

2-4

3-1

3-4

3-2

3-3

3-1

4-1

4-3

4-1

4-2

4-5

5-5

5-1

5-5

5-1

5-3


 

 

 

 

 

 

 

PARA JUMBLE SET - 3

PARA JUMBLE SET - 3

4776   13-Apr-2018, Fri

DIRECTIONS FOR ALL QUESTIONS - Rearrange the following sentences(A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence

 

Para Jumble - 1

(A) “Hello, my dear, I see you may need a little more help, and can you pay me my fees?” said a voice.

(B) The girl gave him a shiny emerald ring and the wheel went whhirr whhirr, and the dwarf hummed, , the bobbins went whizzz and the night went faster than any shooting star in the sky. When he had finished, the dwarf bowed before the girl, then disappeared as fast he had come.

(C) The king’s obsession was fairly well known throughout his kingdom, and one day a miller, who had a very beautiful daughter, thought he could take advantage of this. He told the king about his daughter, claiming that she could spin straw into gold.

(D) In a kingdom far to the east, all the citizens were very wealthy and the whole land was covered in fields of wheat, which grew abundantly and apparently effortlessly. This way, some of this kingdom’s citizens were just as wealthy as the king.

(E) The rich kingdom's king wasn't happy and he had been looking at the straw, as it was brought from the fields, and the colour of the straw reminded him very much of the colour of gold. So he began to think of ways to turn the straw into gold, and this became an obsession.

(F) But of course the poor girl had no idea how to turn straw into gold; she was not even very good at using a spinning wheel. She started to cry, when she was asked to do so, locked in a room.


Q1. Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) E (c) C (d) D (e)F

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F (b) B (c) D (d) A (e)E

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) D (c) C (d) B (e) F


Q4. Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E


Q5. Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) F (e) E

 

Para Jumble - 2

(A) They calculated they would have more success against him. So it came to pass that they raised a great army and invaded Britain.

(B) My father had fought many battles with invading Danes and Saxons, and had always successfully defended his realm, but these foreign invaders rejoiced greatly after his death, when they heard that Constantius the Monk, as people referred to him, had been crowned king.

(C) My name is Uther Pendragon, and I was the third and youngest son of a great king, Constans.

(D) Once upon was a time, long before the inhabitants of Britain wrote down their histories for us all to read, that country was inhabited not just by people like you and me, but wizards, ghouls, monsters, dragons, tricksters, and worse, demons.

(E) During this time some of my father’s most loyal friends took my brother Aurelius and myself out of the country, and across to sea to Brittanny, or Little Britain as it was then commonly known, in a country which you now know as France.

(F) Along with the sons of The great Constans, I fought a gruesome battle which lasted a fortnight and successfully caught hold of our ancestors' reign.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) E (b) C (c) B (d) A (e) D


Q2.Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B (b) A (c) C (d) E (e) D

 

Q3.Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F (b) E (c) C (d) B (e) A

 

Q4.Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) F (c) D (d) B (e) E

 

Q5.Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) C (b) D (c) E (d) F (e) B

 

Para Jumble -3

(A) He spent the whole night moving the tree inch by inch and at last was rewarded with all the gold.

(B) One day a hurricane blew through the town; after it had passed the place looked even worse than before, but the worst thing was that an enormous tree had been blown over and thrown right across the main road leading to the market place.

(C) Lazy Town's Chief made his servants dig a hole under the tree and he hid some gold there. A weak lad the other night thought of elder's discomfort as the tree block the main road.

(D) There was a town where all the people were exceedingly lazy.

(E) Lazy Town's inhabitants didn’t like to do any kind of work at all! They didn’t clean up their yards, they didn’t keep their streets clean, and they couldn’t be bothered to weed their vegetable patches.

(F) The chief heard about the tree blocking the road. He asked; “Why don’t some of these people get together and move it?” But days went by and nobody did anything about it and the tree remained where it was.

 

Q1.Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F (b) B (c) A (d) D (e) E

 

Q2.Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) F (d) D (e) E

 

Q3.Which of the following would be the ‘Third' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) F (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q4.Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) B (b) C (c) F (d) D (e) E

 

Q5.Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?
(a) A (b) B (c) D (d)C (e) E

 

 

Para Jumble – 4

(A) Man’s mind is complex and a crucial entity and its capabilities are far-reaching in respect of its power to dictate and shape each one’s lot in samsara.

(B) While one learns to accept the inevitability of ageing and death that affect the body, hunger and thirst that pertain to one’s prana are perceived as natural demands that are to be met.

(C) Old age and death, hunger and thirst, sorrow and delusion — are the basic challenges of human life.

(D) The very purpose of human life is lost and defeated by failing to hold the mind in check.

(E) To lead the mind in the right direction is a tall order, for it is the source of endless desires.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q2. Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q3. Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q4. Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Para Jumble – 5

 

(A) “We start early, at 4.30a.m. or 5 a.m. The roads are wide and fairly empty at that time. Yet, a few precautions are necessary,” says runner Babitha Xavier.

(B) One of the best ways to discover a city is on foot.

(C) Secunderabad Runners, an offshoot of Hyderabad Runners group, has many runners settled in Secunderbad.

(D) Some of the runners provide commentaries on heritage sites as well.

(E) Runners explore different routes that pass through historical churches, temples and hills dotting Secunderabad.

 

Q1.Which of the following would be the 'fifth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q2.Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q3.Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E


Q4.Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E


Q5.Which of the following would be the 'second' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Para Jumble – 6

 

(A) How you feel should define how you look and not the other way round. It always helps to analyse your own strengths and weaknesses, and once you are aware of your positives, work towards enhancing those.

(B) Thus, not deriving your self-worth from what others think of you goes a long way in making you feel secure and happy.

(C) Granted, majority of people struggle with body image issues. Mostly women, who are burdened with pressures -- culturally and socially -- to look a certain way.

(D) Most of these ideas are fed to them, from the glamour world - films and models.

(E) It’s more socially acceptable for women to speak up about their physical insecurities, but men take longer to open up because of fear of being considered vain.

(F) It’s not just women who battle body image issues. Men face them too, and it affects them as much as it does the fairer sex.

 

Q1.Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F (b) B (c) A (d) D (e) E

 

Q2.Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) F (d) D (e) E

 

Q3.Which of the following would be the ‘Third' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q4.Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B (b) C (c) F (d) D (e) E

 

Q5.Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) D (d)C (e) E

 

 

Para Jumble - 7

 

(A) Kofi Amero didn’t like giving charity, and he was quite annoyed Abaro asked for something.

(B) One sunny day, after Kofi Amero had taken his breakfast, he was relaxing, when all of a sudden he caught sight of Abaro dressed in the most tattered and shabby clothing.

(C) When he had eaten every last bite, and licked his fingers in the process, he straightened himself and before Amero’s astonished eyes changed into an angel of god.

(D) Kofi Amero was a very strict man, but he wasn’t fair, no, he was nasty and selfish.

(E) But he had some uncooked kokoyam lying around under the window, so he took a small dry piece and threw it at the beggar.

(F) He was a little surprised when the man addressed him and asked for some food.

 

Q1. Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) E (b) C (c) B (d) A (e) D


Q2. Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B (b) A (c) C (d) E (e) D


Q3. Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F (b) E (c) C (d) B (e) A


Q4. Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) F (c) D (d) B (e) E

 

Q5. Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) C (b) D (c) E (d) A (e) B

 

 

Para Jumble – 8

 

(A) Phoenix started sharing out all the scraps of food she had stored up all over the forest. Now every single bird, large and small, wanted to be her friend. Thanks to phoenix all the birds had something to eat every day.

(B) One day a great storm hit the Amazon forest, and what phoenix had been worrying about all these years came to pass. Leaves and whole branches were blown off the trees and carried far away by the powerful wind.

(C) The phoenix was a real worrier. She was always telling the other birds to be careful and to prepare for a time that food might not be so plentiful.

(D) Birds didn’t forget their new friend, phoenix. To show their gratitude every bird in the whole forest selected its most beautiful and colourful feather and presented it to phoenix. When they were finished phoenix had been transformed into the most fantastic and multi colourful creature in the forest.

(E) In the Amazon forest all birds ignored Phoenix; some even started calling her nasty names. They carried on with their usual wasteful habits.

(F) As most of the birds had colourful plumage, phoenix was quite ordinary to look at. Some might say a little ugly, even.

 

Q1.Which of the following would be the 'Sixth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F (b) C (c) A (d) D (e) C


Q2.Which of the following would be the 'Third' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F (b) A (c) D (d) B (e) C

 

Q3.Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) E (c) B (d) C (e) F

 

Q4.Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c)C (d)F (e) E

 

Q5.Which of the following would be the 'Fifth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) F (b) D (c) C (d) A (e) B

 

Para Jumble - 9

(A) “Mr. Vulture, I wonder if you are planning to attend the wedding next week?”

(B) Mr. Tortoise really wanted to attend the wedding, he loved parties, but he had no idea how to get there. While he was mulling over this problem, a vulture landed near him, looking for scraps of food left behind by other animals.

(C) Once upon a time there was a wedding in the sky. The bride and groom invited all the animals in the whole land.

(D) Vulture came round to where tortoise lived, and collected him. Tortoise clung onto vulture’s back, and they arrived at the wedding in the sky without any mishaps.

(E) Then the tortoise asked if Mr. Vulture would consider giving him a lift. Vulture shook his head, “That might be a bit difficult”, he said.

 

Q1.Which of the following would be the 'Last' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q2.Which of the following would be the 'Second' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q3.Which of the following would be the ‘Third' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q4.Which of the following would be the 'Fourth' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q5.Which of the following would be the 'First' sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Para Jumble – 10

 

A. Mines in Indonesia, Vietnam, and Australia are the obvious choice.

B. So, companies are rapidly tying up affordable long-term coal supply.

C. Coal is the cheapest fuel for power plants and steel factories, and also their single-big-gest recurring cost.

D. It’s almost a truism now that if we want more electricity and build more cities and infrastructure, the country needs to shop overseas for quality coal.

E. Demand is growing 10% each year.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) A


Q2. Which of the following will be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q3. Which of the following will be th THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) A

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement?

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

 

Q5. Which of the following will be the Fourth sentence after rearrangement?

(a) B (b) C (c) D (d) E (e) A

 

Para Jumble - 11

(A) The pressure on land is high and the workers on land also are compelled to go to the city to find a job there.
(B) Today, with the establishment of factories, the commodities produced by the village craftsmen cannot compete in quality or price with those produced in factories with the result that the village industries suffer a loss and after some time close down.
(C) The joint family system in India flourished in the days of yore when agriculture and trade in the villages were in a sound position.
(D) With the closing down of the village industry the workers move to the city.
(E) Besides the decline of agriculture and trade, there are other causes which induce people to move to the city.
(F) Owing to the inrush of people from the villages to the cities, the Hindu joint family system breaks down.

Q1. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement?

1) A 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) F

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement?

1) E 2) B 3) D 4) C 5) A
 

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence after rearrangement?

1) C 2) A 3) B 4) E 5) D

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement?

 

1) E 2) F 3) B 4) A 5) C

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement?

 

1) D 2) E 3) A 4) C 5) B

 

Para Jumble - 12

(A) But I always felt somewhere in my mind that I loved acting.
(B) He never wanted me to be an actor, as he didn’t look upon theatre or acting as respectable vocation.
(C) Firstly, there was no tradition of theatre in my- family.
(D) I am talking specifically of acting, not theatre in general.
(E) My parents were old- fashioned.
(F) I will answer all your queries a little elaborately.
(G) Let alone theater, arts in general had no place of respect in my family.
(H) My father was a government servant.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the LAST sentence?

(1) G (2) C (3) H (4) D (5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the FIRST sentence?

(1) A (2) B (3) D (4) C (5) F

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the SIXTH sentence?

(1) B (2) C (3) A (4) D (5) E

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the FOURTH sentence?

(1) D (2) E (3) A (4) B (5) G
 

Q5. Which of the following will be the THIRD sentence?

(1) H (2) E (3) G (4) C (5) A

 

Para Jumble -13

 

(A) The urban poor were neglected.
(B) A new generation of professionals however are attempting to reach the urban poor.
(C) This is because they were considered too mobile and lacking in cohesion.
(D) Microfinance institutions have traditionally focused on the rural poor.
(E) These factors do not facilitate generation of peer group pressure which is essential for the success of the microfinance model.
(F) Their challenge will be to adapt the traditional microfinance model to one suited to urban microfinance.

 

Q1. Which of the following is the second sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

 

Q2. Which of the following is the fifth sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E
 

Q3. Which of the following is the sixth ( last) sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

 

Q4. Which of the following is the third sentence after rearrangement?

(1) B (2) C (3) D (4) E (5) F

 

Q5. Which of the following is the first sentence after rearrangement?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) E

 

Para Jumble -14

(A) Do the devices that make it possible to do so many things at once truly raise our productivity or merely help us spin our wheels faster?

(B) More important, they’re exploring what can be done about it– how we can work smarter, live smarter and put our beloved gadgets back in their proper place, with us running them, not the other way around.

(C) The dinging digital devices that allow us to connect and communicate so readily also disrupt our work, our thoughts and what little is left of our private lives.

(D) They have begun to calculate the pluses, the minuses and the economic costs of the interrupted life– in dollars, productivity and dysfunction.

(E) What sort of toll is all this disruption and mental channel switching taking on our ability to think clearly work effectively and function as healthy human beings?

(F) Over the past five years, psychologists, efficiency, experts and information-technology researchers have begun to explore those questions in detail.

 

Q1.Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the THIRD sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) F

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the SIXTH sentence?

(A) A (B) F (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Para Jumble -15

 

(A) He did whatever work was assigned to him and soon the lion became so fond of him that he promised to give him a cart full of almonds as pension when he (the squireel) retired.

(B) Once a squirrel joined the service of the King of the forest the Lion.

(C) The squirrel had waited so long for this day but when he saw the almonds, he was seized with sadness as he realised that they were of no use to him now when he had lost all his teeth.

(D) However, he envied other squirrels in the forest because of their carefree life which he could not enjoy as he had to be by the King's side all the time.

(E) He consoled himself with the thought that at the end of his career, he would receive a cart full of almonds, a food that only a' few squirrels got to taste in their lifetime.

(F) Finally the day came when it was time for him to retire and as promised the King gave a grand banquet in his honour and presented him with a cart full of almonds.

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?

(A) A (B) B (C) F (D) D (E) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?

(A) A (B) C (C) B (D) D (E) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(A) E (B) D (C) B (D) F (E) A

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after the rearrangement?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) F (E) E

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?

 

(A) C (B) D (C) A (D) B (E) E

 


Para Jumble -16

Later, I learned that the sanitation working group helps clean the park.

At the media centre, a team updates the website and maintains the movement’s online presence.

Networks of mutuality had already developed, ensuring the occupation’s viability.

I passed by a food table offering free pizza, bread, and fruit and a medical station with volunteers.

the space also includes a performance area and a makeshift library.

and has developed a system to treat and recycle wastewater.

 

Q1. Which of the following sentences should be the THIRD after rearrangement?

 

(A) E (B) B (C) C (D) A (E) F

 

Q2. Which of the following sentences should be the FIRST after rearrangement?

 

(A) A (B) B (C) E (D) D (E) F

 

Q3. Which of the following sentences should be the SECOND after rearrangement?

 

(A) A (B) B (C) E (D) D (E) F

 

Q4. Which of the following sentences should be the SIXTH (LAST) after rearrangement?

 

(A) A (B) E (C) D (D) B (E) F

 

Q5. Which of the following sentences should be the FIFTH after rearrangement?

 

(A) B (B) A (C) C (D) E (E) F

 

Para Jumble -17

(A) Basic human needs also include a sense of belongingness, a felling of control over one’s life.

(B) Motivation and inspiration energize people in to action

(C) Ability to live up to one’s ideals besides all these is also a fundamental need

(D) This is done not by pushing them in the right direction as control mechanisms.

(E) such feelings touch us deeply and elicit powerful response.

(F) But it is alone by satisfying basic human needs for achievement.

 

Q1. Which of the following should be the FIRST statement after rearrangement?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q2. Which of the following should be the SECOND statement after rearrangement?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q3. Which of the following should be the FOURTH statement after rearrangement?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q4. Which of the following should be the FIFTH statement after rearrangement?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q5. Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) statement after rearrangement?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Para Jumble -18

A)Moreover, salaries in public sector enterprises are not as competitive as those offered by private or foreign corporate.

B)This trend should be a wake-up call for stakeholders to examine why employee are seeking better opportunities with private companies in India and abroad.

C)Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) have been experiencing severe challenges in attracting, motivating and retaining their key staff.

D)Having identified these as the reasons why employees leave PSEs, it is important to empower stakeholders to find ways to remedy the situation.

E)One reason is that young employees lured away by private firms are more willing to undertake professional risks.

F)Employees in specialist roles especially have become increasingly difficult to retain.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the Fourth sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the First sentence?

(A) F (B) D (C) C (D) B (E) A

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the Last sentence?

(A) F (B) D (C) C (D) B (E) A

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the Third sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q5. Which of the following will the Fifth sentence?

(A) B (B) A (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Para Jumble -19

A)Ironically, the same parents who are considered to be ignorant are thought to be very enlightened in choosing private schools over state-run ones.

B)This is all the more reason why we should include them during the planning and implementation of the system.

C)This is apparent at every stage from policymaking to implementation as critical decisions are made without the participation of the stakeholders,an attitude that can only be described as either arrogance or indifference.

D)In reality,every parent decides which school is a good one, based on his/her own set of values,perceptions and aspirations.

E)The root cause of most of the ills that plague our education system is the enormous distance that separates the power centres within the system and the schools where the action takes place.

F)It is often said in defense of such an approach that poor parents are too ignorant to be the partners in a meaningful dialogue.

 

Q1. Which of the following will be the Fourth sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q2. Which of the following will be the First sentence?

(A) F (B) D (C) E (D) B (E) A

 

Q3. Which of the following will be the Last sentence?

(A) F (B) D (C) C (D) B (E) A

 

Q4. Which of the following will be the Third sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) F (E) E

 

Q5. Which of the following will the Fifth sentence?

(A) B (B) A (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

 

 

Para Jumble -20

(A) According to the national Policy of Education, it is 6 percent of the GDP.

(B) India spends a little less than 4 percent, as did countries like South Korea and Japan that achieved high literacy post World War II.

(C) The quality of expenditure is more important than the quantity.

(D) The center spends Rs 1000 per year on a child while in cities like Mumbai; it’s higher than Rs 6300.

(E) Yet independent studies have found that an average four years of schooling generates two years of learning levels across country.

(F) How much government should the government spend on education?

(G) China spends only 2.6 percent.

 

Q1. Which one of the following can be the FIRST sentence of the passage in the rearranged sentences?

(A) A (B) D (C) C (D) F (E) G

 

Q2. Which one of following can be the SECOND sentence of the passage in rearranged sentences?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q3. Which one of the following can be the THIRD sentence of the passage in the rearranged sentences?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q4. Which one of the following can be the FOURTH sentence of the passage in the rearranged sentences?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D (E) E

 

Q5. Which one of following can be the FIFTH sentence of the passage in the rearranged sentence?

(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) G (E) E

 

ANSWER KEY

 

 

 

P.JU 1

DECFAB

P.JU 2

DCBAEF

P.JU 3

DEBFCA

P.JU 4

CBAED

P.JU 5

DCEDA

P.JU 6

CDFEAB

P.JU 7

DBFAEC

P.JU 8

CEFBAD

P.JU 9

CBAED

1-B

1-B

1-C

1-B

1-A

1-B

1-C

1-D

1-D

2-C

2-E

2-E

2-C

2-E

2-D

2-E

2-A

2-B

3-E

3-E

3-B

3-E

3-B

3-A

3-E

3-D

3-A

4-C

4-D

4-C

4-A

4-D

4-E

4-B

4-B

4-E

5-B

5-D

5-C

5-D

5-C

5-D

5-A

5-D

5-C

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

P.JU 10

DCEBA

P.JU 11

P.JU 12

P.JU 13

P.JU 14

P.JU 15

P.JU 16

P.JU 17

P.JU 18

1-C

1- 4

1- 4

1- 1

1- C

1- A

1- B

1- B

1- E

2-C

2- 2

2- 5

2- 2

2- D

2- C

2- C

2- D

2- C

3-D

3- 5

3- 1

3- 5

3- B

3- D

3- D

3- A

3- B

4-A

4- 2

4- 2

4- 2

4- A

4- E

4- E

4- E

4- Z

5-A

5- 3

5- 3

5- 4

5- B

5- A

5- B

5- C

5-

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

P.JU 19

P.JU 20

1- A

1- E

2- C

2- A

3- D

3- B

4- D

4- D

5- D

5- C

CLOZE TEST SET - 6

CLOZE TEST SET - 6

2944   09-Apr-2018, Mon

Directions (Q): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five words suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word in each case.

 

CLOZE TEST -1

 

 

As early as in 2007, the Delhi High Court had acted on a public interest litigation to lay down that 10 per cent of inpatient facilities and 25 per cent of..(6)..services be provided free of cost to the poor. The effect of non-compliance was the repayment of the allegedly “unwarranted profits” the hospitals had made. The hospitals that have now been fined ..(7)..any failure to treat the required number of indigent patients and plan to challenge the order. While the courts will have the final say on the dispute, the principle of opposing..(8).. in the health sector cannot be faulted.

The World Health Organisation (WHO) estimates that government accounts for only one-third of India’s healthcare spend — well below what is..(9)…As a result, we have a situation in which the private sector accounts for a significant part of healthcare services. Given the low ..(10)..of health insurance, about 86 per cent of expenditure on health comes out of people’s pockets.

 

1.

1) outpatient       2) patient       3) doctor      4) helper      5) victim

 

2.

1) decreed         2) entente         3) dispute        4) cease-fire     5) agreement

 

3.

1) rightfully       2) honouring        3) uncorrupting         4) profiteering       5) legitimately

 

4.

1) profitable       2) desirable         3) disgusting          4) unattractive        5) ineligible

 

5.

1) departure       2) avenue          3) evacuation       4) expulsion       5) penetration

 

 

CLOZE TEST - 2

 

 

After a nervous two-year period following the permanent grounding of the HPT-32 basic trainer in 2010, the IAF’s training schedule is now (1) based on the Pilatus trainer. That we do not have an intermediate jet trainer (IJT) is thanks to the unkept promise of Hindustan Aeronautics Limited to produce the Sitara IJT. The Hawk is doing fine in preparing rookie pilots transit to advanced machines like the Sukhoi but a lead-in fighter would help the cause no small extent in shortening the leap distance to high-end fighters.
The strength of fighter (2) is an issue requiring urgent government intervention. The full strength of 272 Su-30s, incoming 120 Tejas and 36 Rafales would help absorb the phase out of MiG-21/27s but the decision to induct almost 100-plus more single-engine fighters (F16 or Gripen?) to meet a two-front threat should not be delayed. The force-multiplier fleets of AWACS (airborne warning and control systems) and flight refuellers need augmentation and the decision to cancel the Airbus 330 flight refueller deal is a (3) step needing (4) through the government-to-government route to shorten acquisition time. The transport fleet is going fine with its C-17, C-130, IL-76 and An-32 while the (5) wing element has become perhaps the most potent helicopter fleet that any air force of the region possesses. The air defence system needs careful (6) but with the indigenous Akash surface-to-air (SAM) missiles proving successful and the Israeli-assisted long- and medium-range SAM systems reaching(7) , the IAF would be comfortable in the coming years; this is all the more so with India deciding to buy the very potent S-400 air defence system from Russia. Space is an (8) part of any armed force and it is vital that the civil-oriented Indian Space Research Organisation pivots to meet the increasing needs of the Services for ISR (intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance) and net-centricity.
Conflict in the modern era has made air power the weapon of first choice for the politician due its attributes, among others, of low reaction time and lethality with (9) . The government has to be aware that technological asymmetry can be a crucial difference in the coming years, especially vis-à-vis China, in military aviation. We still have a time window where the superiority of IAF’s human resource, its practical experience and better war-making assets would (10) against adversaries on both frontiers. The IAF is a prime instrument of national power projection, both soft and hard, and as India’s stature rises, so would its responsibilities. A potent IAF would be a mandatory arrow in India’s quiver. May the landings equal the take-offs for our guys in blue!

 

1.

1) serious      2) solemn        3) rollicking        4) austere      5) dignified

 

2.

1) squadrons    2) inactive        3) worthless       4) precious      5) ineffective

 

3.

1) retrograde         2) progressing       3) forward       4) positive      5) premature

 

4.

1) block          2) impediment          3) recession          4) stagnation         5) amelioration

 

5.

1) contraclockwise          2) rotary        3) counterclockwise        4) anticlockwise       5) dilute

 

6.

1) deprivation           2) ignorance          3) nurturing         4) neglect          5) starvation

 

7.

1) implement          2) disgust            3) unfulfillment         4) fruition         5) failure

 

8.

1) extrinsic          2) secondary         3) supplemental          4) integral         5) unnecessary

 

9.

1) precision         2) imprecision       3) arrogate                 4) precarious       5) inaccuracy

 

10.

1) abandonment     2) appeasement         3) capitulation          4) abdication       5) prevail

 

 

CLOZE TEST -3

 

 

To control crowds, the police in most countries use weapons that are termed “non-lethal” but have proved lethal in many cases. For one, these weapons fire (1) , because of which the public safety of (2) cannot be ensured. And two, if fired at a close range or by untrained personnel, these weapons can prove lethal. The 2016 report, “The health (3) of crowd-control weapons”, by Physicians for Human Rights states that international mechanisms have failed to keep pace with the rapid development of crowd-control technologies. International standards addressing the use of crowd-control weapons are limited, and there are no (4) on the types of weapons that may be used to tackle protesters or on the manufacture and trade of these weapons. The report notes: “There is a need to engage in further ethical research and (5) study to develop clear scientific parameters on their use.”

It was during the 2010 unrest that (6) guns were first introduced in the Kashmir Valley. A pellet gun is primarily a bird-hunting weapon and has been used in only a few countries such as Bahrain, Tunisia, and Egypt. At short range, these can be (7) . Also, when fired, the pellets or iron balls do not travel in one trajectory; they spray in multiple directions and can inflict serious injuries on bystanders.
Maryam al-Khawaja, a human rights activist from Bahrain, noted in a paper that during the 2011 (8) , “a number of children and adults were killed by the use of pellets”. Further, in a study conducted at the Sher-i-Kashmir Institute of Medical Sciences from June to September 2010, “198 patients were identified as having sustained pellet gunfire injury”. The study further noted: “Mortality occurred in six patients”.
In the first week of September, following national and international (9) against the use of pellet guns, Union Home Minister Rajnath Singh cleared the use of chilli-filled grenades for crowd control as an (10) to pellet guns. However, there was a caveat: pellet guns would continue to be used in the “rarest of rare cases”.

 

1.

1) chosen          2) systematic          3) indiscriminately         4) particular          5) specific

 

2.

1) showboat         2) show-off         3) exhibitionist            4) bystanders           5) character

 

3.

1) consequences        2) beginning          3) causes           4) origins             5) sources

 

4.

1) trigger             2) wildness             3) arousal            4) agitations           5) restraints

 

5.

1) hypothetical        2) impractical         3) speculative        4) empirical       5) theoretical

 

6.

1) recoil          2) pellet          3) backlash          4) boomerang       5) disappoint

 

7.

1) beneficial          2) harmless        3) helpful          4) life-giving      5) lethal

 

8.

1) dropping          2) uprising          3) declining        4) dipping         5) falling

 

9.